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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 15

Question 140

A payroll app should open only on organization-compliant endpoints even if a password is correct. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Enforce Microsoft Entra Conditional Access requiring compliant device signals for sensitive application access.
  2. Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
  3. On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
  4. Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details.
  5. Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Enforce Microsoft Entra Conditional Access requiring compliant device signals for sensitive application access. This is the directly applicable response. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

D:

Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

C:

On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

E:

Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

Question 141

A governance analyst needs classification-oriented item-level visibility before creating remediation plans. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
  2. Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
  3. Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations.
  4. The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

B:

Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

D:

The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Question 142

A tenant wants users to recover access through self-service while maintaining an auditable verification process. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience.
  2. Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users.
  3. Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity.
  4. Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users. This is the directly applicable response. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

C:

Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

D:

Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

Question 143

A firm wants to block access from explicitly disallowed geographic regions without giving blanket privilege to office networks. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. A managed tenant identity can sign in to integrated cloud resources under assigned access policies.
  2. Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control.
  3. Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts.
  4. Users sign in with the intended phishing-resistant cryptographic authentication method instead of sharing reusable secrets.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A managed tenant identity can sign in to integrated cloud resources under assigned access policies. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

C:

Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

D:

Users sign in with the intended phishing-resistant cryptographic authentication method instead of sharing reusable secrets. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

Question 144

A software team moves its application to Azure virtual machines and assumes Microsoft now patches the guest operating systems. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access.
  2. Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments.
  3. Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control.
  4. Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.
  5. Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

C:

Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control. This is the directly applicable response. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

D:

Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

E:

Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Question 145

A security lead wants privileged operators to elevate for two hours rather than hold constant access. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect PIM eligible and active assignments, activation policies and role activation logs.
  2. Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants.
  3. Use Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management to require time-limited activation of eligible privileged roles.
  4. A managed tenant identity can sign in to integrated cloud resources under assigned access policies.
  5. Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect PIM eligible and active assignments, activation policies and role activation logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

C:

Use Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management to require time-limited activation of eligible privileged roles. This is the directly applicable response. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

D:

A managed tenant identity can sign in to integrated cloud resources under assigned access policies. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

E:

Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

Question 146

An enterprise wants staff departures reflected in application access as directory accounts are disabled. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach.
  2. Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence.
  3. Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
  4. Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This is the directly applicable response. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

B:

Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

C:

Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

Question 147

A storage service requires supported cloud workload threat monitoring beyond configuration review. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports.
  2. Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads.
  3. Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators.
  4. Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence.
  5. An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads. This is the directly applicable response. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

D:

Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

C:

Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

E:

An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

Question 148

A project needs automatic tagging of selected content with an appropriate lifecycle rule where supported. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.
  2. Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling. This is the directly applicable response. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

C:

Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

D:

Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

Question 149

A public-facing service becomes unreachable during coordinated high-volume attacks from many sources. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Analysts can connect relevant observed indicators with contextualized threat information to guide investigation.
  2. Simulated or observed attack conditions show mitigation telemetry while legitimate traffic remains reachable.
  3. A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results.
  4. Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Simulated or observed attack conditions show mitigation telemetry while legitimate traffic remains reachable. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Analysts can connect relevant observed indicators with contextualized threat information to guide investigation. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

C:

A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

D:

Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

Question 150

An administrator changes a department attribute locally and wants it reflected in cloud group assignments. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts.
  2. Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced.
  3. The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions.
  4. The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

C:

The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

D:

The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests