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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 13

Question 120

An analyst sees suspicious sign-ins from unfamiliar infrastructure and needs identity-risk context. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history.
  2. Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins.
  3. Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events.
  4. Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.
  5. Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

B:

Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins. This is the directly applicable response. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

D:

Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

E:

Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Question 121

A security operator wants one console to triage Defender endpoint and email alerts. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused.
  2. Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope.
  3. Operators can navigate from a unified incident to related evidence across connected Defender services.
  4. Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Operators can navigate from a unified incident to related evidence across connected Defender services. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

B:

Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

D:

Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

Question 122

A warehouse team relies on a perimeter firewall as its only safeguard for sensitive payroll records. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers.
  2. Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
  3. Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
  4. Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

C:

Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

D:

Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

Question 123

A data steward wants to locate repositories containing many items marked highly confidential. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
  2. A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition.
  3. Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations.
  4. Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

B:

A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

D:

Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Question 124

A legal records team wants controlled lifecycle management for declared business records. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards.
  2. Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation.
  3. Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements. This is the directly applicable response. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

B:

Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

C:

Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

Question 125

A records officer wants to review supported user actions associated with information-protection policies. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record.
  2. The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when.
  3. Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
  4. A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

C:

Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

D:

A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

Question 126

A healthcare organization has security controls but cannot show which regulation each control supports. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records.
  2. Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
  3. Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
  4. Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Governance risk and compliance is the closer match. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

C:

Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Governance risk and compliance is the closer match. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

D:

Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Governance risk and compliance is the closer match. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

Question 127

A company wants an MFA requirement for a high-risk billing app but not for every internal service. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users.
  2. Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access.
  3. Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords.
  4. Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement. This is the directly applicable response. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

B:

Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access. This item belongs to a different control area: Access reviews. Its appropriate purpose is: Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

C:

Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

Question 128

A procurement team suspects employees are uploading files to unsanctioned SaaS storage platforms. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Supported workloads generate relevant security detections that the team can triage.
  2. Unapproved cloud app usage becomes visible to reviewers with relevant discovery evidence.
  3. Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.
  4. Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unapproved cloud app usage becomes visible to reviewers with relevant discovery evidence. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Supported workloads generate relevant security detections that the team can triage. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

C:

Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

D:

Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

Question 129

A company wants new hires automatically assigned onboarding tasks at their start date. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported.
  2. Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience.
  3. Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes.
  4. Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs.
  5. Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported. This is the directly applicable response. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

C:

Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

D:

Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Multifactor authentication. Its appropriate purpose is: MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

E:

Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential. This item belongs to a different control area: Windows Hello for Business. Its appropriate purpose is: Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

Question 130

A subnet allows a management port from all addresses and needs a narrow source-based restriction. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
  2. Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status.
  3. Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface.
  4. Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

B:

Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender Vulnerability Management. Its appropriate purpose is: Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

D:

Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests