cert
cert-1
cert-2

Pass Microsoft SC-900 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed!

Get 100% Latest Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers to Pass the Actual Exam!
30 Days Free Updates, Instant Download!

cert-5
cert-6
SC-900 Exam - Verified By Experts
SC-900 Premium Bundle
$29.98

SC-900 Premium Bundle

$79.99
$109.97
  • Premium File 259 Questions & Answers. Last update: Nov 10, 2026
  • Training Course 147 Video Lectures
  • Study Guide 413 Pages
 
$109.97
$79.99
accept 69 downloads in last 7 days
block-screenshots
Purchase Microsoft SC-900 Exam Training Products Individually
Microsoft SC-900 Premium File
Premium File 259 Q&A
$76.99$69.99
Microsoft SC-900 Video Training Course
Training Course 147 Lectures
$21.99 $19.99
Microsoft SC-900 PDF Study Guide
Study Guide 413 Pages
$21.99 $19.99
Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 12

Question 110

A security manager wants to trace cloud technical findings into a compliance framework dashboard. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
  2. Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines.
  3. Inspect discovered app inventory, traffic evidence and application risk scores.
  4. Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

B:

Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

C:

Inspect discovered app inventory, traffic evidence and application risk scores. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps discovery. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Question 111

An on-premises Active Directory estate wants to extend Entra password protection with the supported agent design. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
  2. Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events.
  3. Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
  4. Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

C:

Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

D:

Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

Question 112

An HR team wants activity controls when employees use certain sanctioned cloud apps from personal devices. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections.
  2. The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused.
  3. Simulated or observed attack conditions show mitigation telemetry while legitimate traffic remains reachable.
  4. The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

B:

The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

C:

Simulated or observed attack conditions show mitigation telemetry while legitimate traffic remains reachable. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

Question 113

A web API faces malicious requests aimed at application vulnerabilities rather than network saturation. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue.
  2. Related endpoint, identity and email signals appear together in a coordinated investigation.
  3. Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy.
  4. Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Related endpoint, identity and email signals appear together in a coordinated investigation. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

C:

Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

D:

Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

Question 114

A laptop fleet wants workers to sign in with biometrics or PIN without sending those gestures to a remote server. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access.
  2. Deploy Windows Hello for Business for strong device-associated user authentication on supported Windows endpoints.
  3. Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control.
  4. Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
  5. Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Deploy Windows Hello for Business for strong device-associated user authentication on supported Windows endpoints. This is the directly applicable response. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

E:

Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

C:

Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

D:

Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

Question 115

A regulated company needs to view Azure configuration gaps grouped against a recognized control standard. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports.
  2. Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations.
  3. Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied.
  4. Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.
  5. Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This is the directly applicable response. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

E:

Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

B:

Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

C:

Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Question 116

A regulated firm must review approvals before permanently disposing of certain retained records. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
  2. Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions.
  3. Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements.
  5. Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements. This is the directly applicable response. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

E:

Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

B:

Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

C:

Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

Question 117

An admin portal requires extra authentication when users connect from untrusted networks. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity.
  2. Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods.
  3. Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods.
  4. Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity. This is the directly applicable response. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

C:

Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods. This item belongs to a different control area: Multifactor authentication. Its appropriate purpose is: MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

D:

Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

Question 118

An office employee moves between networks and the organization wants each sensitive session evaluated rather than trusted by location. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access.
  2. A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted.
  3. Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task.
  4. Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

B:

A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

D:

Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

Question 119

A litigation team needs to preserve selected mailboxes and documents for a legal hold. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
  2. Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
  3. Intended users can apply the approved label and the configured protection behaves on labeled content.
  4. Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions.
  5. Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This is the directly applicable response. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

D:

Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

C:

Intended users can apply the approved label and the configured protection behaves on labeled content. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitivity labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

E:

Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history. This item belongs to a different control area: Records management. Its appropriate purpose is: Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

Question 120

An analyst sees suspicious sign-ins from unfamiliar infrastructure and needs identity-risk context. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history.
  2. Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins.
  3. Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events.
  4. Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.
  5. Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

B:

Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins. This is the directly applicable response. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

D:

Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

E:

Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests