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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 14

Question 130

A subnet allows a management port from all addresses and needs a narrow source-based restriction. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
  2. Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status.
  3. Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface.
  4. Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

B:

Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender Vulnerability Management. Its appropriate purpose is: Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

D:

Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

Question 131

A service currently embeds a database connection secret in its source repository. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect cross-product incidents, linked alerts, entity timeline and incident evidence in the Defender portal.
  2. Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions.
  3. Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations.
  4. Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect cross-product incidents, linked alerts, entity timeline and incident evidence in the Defender portal. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

C:

Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

D:

Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Question 132

A third-party automation platform needs authorized API access to a tenant without impersonating a shared employee account. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported.
  2. Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
  3. Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
  4. Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access.
  5. The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

D:

Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access. This is the directly applicable response. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

C:

Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

E:

The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

Question 133

An organization wants a common preservation period for selected Microsoft 365 locations. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect retention policy scope, duration settings and resulting content lifecycle behavior.
  2. Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service.
  3. Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments.
  4. Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect retention policy scope, duration settings and resulting content lifecycle behavior. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.

C:

Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.

D:

Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.

Question 134

A help desk report confuses passing multifactor sign-in with having administrator rights in a tenant. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison.
  2. The responsibility matrix explicitly assigns customer-managed safeguards and those settings have accountable owners.
  3. A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted.
  4. An exercise demonstrates that a single failed control does not expose the protected data without further safeguards.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

B:

The responsibility matrix explicitly assigns customer-managed safeguards and those settings have accountable owners. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

D:

An exercise demonstrates that a single failed control does not expose the protected data without further safeguards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defense in depth. Its appropriate purpose is: Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

Question 135

An application needs to retrieve an API token at runtime without storing it in a configuration file. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies.
  2. Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
  3. Store and access application secrets in Azure Key Vault with appropriately controlled authorization.
  4. An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition.
  5. Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Store and access application secrets in Azure Key Vault with appropriately controlled authorization. This is the directly applicable response. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

E:

Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

B:

Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

D:

An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Question 136

A small charity adopts a cloud SaaS offering and assumes it no longer needs to manage user access or its own data. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The responsibility matrix explicitly assigns customer-managed safeguards and those settings have accountable owners.
  2. Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location.
  3. The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access.
  4. A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The responsibility matrix explicitly assigns customer-managed safeguards and those settings have accountable owners. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

C:

The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

D:

A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Question 137

An organization discovers staff frequently choose its company name plus a year as their password. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Stale access is removed or explicitly reaffirmed according to the completed review decisions.
  2. Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution.
  3. Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced.
  4. The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Stale access is removed or explicitly reaffirmed according to the completed review decisions. This item belongs to a different control area: Access reviews. Its appropriate purpose is: Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

B:

Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

D:

The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

Question 138

A fleet security analyst wants to correlate malicious processes, network connections and affected devices. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration.
  2. Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes.
  3. Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events.
  4. Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

B:

Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

C:

Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

Question 139

A fleet owner needs to verify progress after patching vulnerable browser versions. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration.
  2. Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status.
  3. Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.
  4. Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

C:

Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

D:

Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

Question 140

A payroll app should open only on organization-compliant endpoints even if a password is correct. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Enforce Microsoft Entra Conditional Access requiring compliant device signals for sensitive application access.
  2. Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
  3. On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
  4. Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details.
  5. Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Enforce Microsoft Entra Conditional Access requiring compliant device signals for sensitive application access. This is the directly applicable response. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

D:

Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

C:

On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

E:

Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests