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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 10

Question 90

A security lead wants privileged operators to elevate for two hours rather than hold constant access. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code.
  2. A managed tenant identity can sign in to integrated cloud resources under assigned access policies.
  3. The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated.
  4. Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

B:

A managed tenant identity can sign in to integrated cloud resources under assigned access policies. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

C:

The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

Question 91

A risk team needs security context to understand whether identified infrastructure is linked to known attacker activity. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.
  2. Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads.
  3. Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators.
  4. Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators. This is the directly applicable response. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.

B:

Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.

D:

Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.

Question 92

An email security review finds malicious files that users downloaded from apparently ordinary messages. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.
  2. Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them.
  3. Traffic paths honor the intended segment boundaries and only deliberately connected networks can communicate.
  4. A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

C:

Traffic paths honor the intended segment boundaries and only deliberately connected networks can communicate. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure virtual network segmentation. Its appropriate purpose is: Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

D:

A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

Question 93

A procurement team suspects employees are uploading files to unsanctioned SaaS storage platforms. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization.
  2. Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.
  3. Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
  4. Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence.
  5. Inspect discovered app inventory, traffic evidence and application risk scores.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization. This is the directly applicable response. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

E:

Inspect discovered app inventory, traffic evidence and application risk scores. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

C:

Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

D:

Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

Question 94

An analyst investigates a burst of DLP rule matches and needs activity events by user. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
  2. Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
  4. Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features.
  5. Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

C:

Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This is the directly applicable response. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

D:

Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

E:

Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

Question 95

A subnet allows a management port from all addresses and needs a narrow source-based restriction. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope.
  2. Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections.
  3. Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface.
  4. Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management to discover, prioritize and track exposed device software weaknesses.
  5. The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope. This is the directly applicable response. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

C:

Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

D:

Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management to discover, prioritize and track exposed device software weaknesses. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender Vulnerability Management. Its appropriate purpose is: Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

E:

The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

Question 96

An audit group mistakes a high compliance score for proof that every legal obligation is satisfied. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload.
  2. Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes.
  3. Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service.
  4. Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

B:

Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

C:

Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

Question 97

An organization moves an application to cloud hosting but needs to rely on its established corporate sign-in provider. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence.
  2. Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application.
  3. Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys.
  4. Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
  5. A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application. This is the directly applicable response. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

D:

Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

C:

Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

E:

A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Question 98

An organization needs to identify files containing financial account identifiers before policy enforcement. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Known matching test content is detected and nonmatching benign content is not broadly misclassified.
  2. The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
  3. Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
  4. A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Known matching test content is detected and nonmatching benign content is not broadly misclassified. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.

C:

Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.

D:

A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.

Question 99

An auditor needs to examine where sensitive information types occur in supported content stores. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles.
  2. A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls.
  3. Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation.
  4. Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down.
  5. Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles. This is the directly applicable response. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

D:

Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

C:

Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

E:

Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Question 100

An office employee moves between networks and the organization wants each sensitive session evaluated rather than trusted by location. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.
  2. Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach.
  3. Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.
  4. Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach. This is the directly applicable response. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

C:

Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

D:

Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests