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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 17

Question 160

A company needs network-layer DDoS mitigation and attack insights for its Azure-hosted public service. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.
  2. The identified vulnerable installations are remediated and exposure assessments show reduced risk.
  3. Simulated or observed attack conditions show mitigation telemetry while legitimate traffic remains reachable.
  4. Analysts can connect relevant observed indicators with contextualized threat information to guide investigation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Simulated or observed attack conditions show mitigation telemetry while legitimate traffic remains reachable. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

B:

The identified vulnerable installations are remediated and exposure assessments show reduced risk. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender Vulnerability Management. Its appropriate purpose is: Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

D:

Analysts can connect relevant observed indicators with contextualized threat information to guide investigation. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

Question 161

An Azure function reads secrets from a vault and the developer wants to eliminate a client secret in configuration. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.
  2. Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes.
  3. Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need.
  4. Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants.
  5. Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This is the directly applicable response. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

D:

Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

C:

Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need. This item belongs to a different control area: Privileged Identity Management eligible roles. Its appropriate purpose is: PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

E:

Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access. This item belongs to a different control area: Access reviews. Its appropriate purpose is: Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

Question 162

A project identifies a new data residency obligation and needs to assign ownership, policy and an auditable response. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records.
  2. Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location.
  3. Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.
  4. Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence.
  5. Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

D:

Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence. This is the directly applicable response. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Governance risk and compliance is the closer match. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

C:

Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Governance risk and compliance is the closer match. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

E:

Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Governance risk and compliance is the closer match. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

Question 163

A SOC needs cloud authentication logs and firewall events in a central detection environment. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Analysts can connect relevant observed indicators with contextualized threat information to guide investigation.
  2. Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events.
  3. Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis.
  4. Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.
  5. Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

C:

Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis. This is the directly applicable response. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Analysts can connect relevant observed indicators with contextualized threat information to guide investigation. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

D:

Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

E:

Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

Question 164

A compliance group needs a catalog of cloud apps employees access outside the approved list. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions.
  2. Inspect discovered app inventory, traffic evidence and application risk scores.
  3. Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.
  4. Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect discovered app inventory, traffic evidence and application risk scores. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

C:

Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

D:

Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.

Question 165

A government office needs evidence that official records cannot be casually deleted before required disposition. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
  2. Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload.
  3. Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history.
  4. Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

B:

Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

D:

Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

Question 166

A security lead wants privileged operators to elevate for two hours rather than hold constant access. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
  2. Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants.
  3. Inspect PIM eligible and active assignments, activation policies and role activation logs.
  4. Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect PIM eligible and active assignments, activation policies and role activation logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

B:

Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

D:

Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

Question 167

An administrator wants to replace network-location trust with identity-based gates for a SaaS portal. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.
  2. Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach.
  3. Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
  4. Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This is the directly applicable response. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

C:

Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

D:

Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

Question 168

A company notices that recently hired on-premises users are absent from its Microsoft 365 tenant. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.
  2. The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
  3. Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts.
  4. Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

B:

The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

D:

Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

Question 169

A detection engineer is tuning a rule so it identifies suspicious sequences while minimizing harmless matches. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening.
  2. Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.
  3. Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies.
  4. Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data. This is the directly applicable response. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.

B:

Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.

C:

Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.

Question 170

A service currently embeds a database connection secret in its source repository. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect cross-product incidents, linked alerts, entity timeline and incident evidence in the Defender portal.
  2. Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources.
  3. Store and access application secrets in Azure Key Vault with appropriately controlled authorization.
  4. Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions.
  5. Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Store and access application secrets in Azure Key Vault with appropriately controlled authorization. This is the directly applicable response. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

D:

Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect cross-product incidents, linked alerts, entity timeline and incident evidence in the Defender portal. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

B:

Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

E:

Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests