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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 65

Question 640

A tunnel dashboard shows connected but encrypt counters rise while decrypt counters remain zero. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail.
  2. Trace RADIUS network-access request and decision paths to isolate credential, shared secret, policy, or reachability failures.
  3. Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases.
  4. Diagnose VPN setup failures in phase order by comparing peer reachability, authentication identities, and mutually supported IKE and IPsec proposals.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. IKE-up status validates part of the control plane; the protected data plane requires matching routes, selectors, and NAT behavior. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect bidirectional security association counters, packet traces, NAT policy, route selection, and remote selectors. Situation: A tunnel dashboard shows connected but encrypt counters rise while decrypt counters remain zero.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Trace RADIUS network-access request and decision paths to isolate credential, shared secret, policy, or reachability failures. This response applies to RADIUS network access troubleshooting, not the controlling requirement in this case. RADIUS typically supports network access control and policy attributes; network reachability, policy, and EAP trust must be checked independently. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. Situation: A tunnel dashboard shows connected but encrypt counters rise while decrypt counters remain zero.

C:

Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases. This response applies to FTD site-to-site VPN crypto policy, not the controlling requirement in this case. Successful VPN peer authentication does not prove application forwarding; selectors, route tables, NAT, and access policies also govern data traffic. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. Situation: A tunnel dashboard shows connected but encrypt counters rise while decrypt counters remain zero.

D:

Diagnose VPN setup failures in phase order by comparing peer reachability, authentication identities, and mutually supported IKE and IPsec proposals. This response applies to FTD IKE negotiation failure isolation, not the controlling requirement in this case. Tunnel establishment progresses through distinct authentication and negotiation stages; changing unrelated firewall rules cannot fix mismatched proposals. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. Situation: A tunnel dashboard shows connected but encrypt counters rise while decrypt counters remain zero.

Question 641

An AI incident assistant reads a wiki paragraph that orders it to upload secret firewall configuration to a public endpoint. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. The response mitigates the documented attack mechanism without mistaking a network flood for a local infected binary.
  2. Confirmed malicious indicators are shared and acted upon while expired or disputed indicators no longer cause unjustified blocking.
  3. A hostile document can be summarized without causing the assistant to reveal credentials or invoke unapproved tools.
  4. Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A hostile document can be summarized without causing the assistant to reveal credentials or invoke unapproved tools. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Prompt injection occurs when lower-trust content is promoted to instruction authority; blocking unsafe tool effects requires enforcement beyond prompt wording. Situation: An AI incident assistant reads a wiki paragraph that orders it to upload secret firewall configuration to a public endpoint.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The response mitigates the documented attack mechanism without mistaking a network flood for a local infected binary. This outcome tests DDoS versus endpoint malware diagnosis and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A hostile document can be summarized without causing the assistant to reveal credentials or invoke unapproved tools. Situation: An AI incident assistant reads a wiki paragraph that orders it to upload secret firewall configuration to a public endpoint.

B:

Confirmed malicious indicators are shared and acted upon while expired or disputed indicators no longer cause unjustified blocking. This outcome tests Threat intelligence indicator lifecycle and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A hostile document can be summarized without causing the assistant to reveal credentials or invoke unapproved tools. Situation: An AI incident assistant reads a wiki paragraph that orders it to upload secret firewall configuration to a public endpoint.

D:

Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers. This outcome tests Embedding and model supply chain risk and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A hostile document can be summarized without causing the assistant to reveal credentials or invoke unapproved tools. Situation: An AI incident assistant reads a wiki paragraph that orders it to upload secret firewall configuration to a public endpoint.

Question 642

A security team deploys an updated client but several workstations retain incompatible old posture components. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect sample provenance, sandbox verdict, observed process/file/network behavior, detonation environment, and indicator confidence.
  2. Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken.
  3. Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping.
  4. Inspect last posture evaluation time, policy change triggers, endpoint alert status, session authorization, and remediation evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Secure Client is a modular endpoint platform; enabling a VPN tunnel does not automatically mean all security modules or postures are active. The controlled response would be: Deploy appropriate Cisco Secure Client modules for supported connectivity and endpoint posture requirements and verify the component state. Situation: A security team deploys an updated client but several workstations retain incompatible old posture components.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect sample provenance, sandbox verdict, observed process/file/network behavior, detonation environment, and indicator confidence. This evidence addresses Cisco Secure Malware Analytics detonation evidence; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping. Situation: A security team deploys an updated client but several workstations retain incompatible old posture components.

B:

Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. This evidence addresses Secure Endpoint detection event trajectory; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping. Situation: A security team deploys an updated client but several workstations retain incompatible old posture components.

D:

Inspect last posture evaluation time, policy change triggers, endpoint alert status, session authorization, and remediation evidence. This evidence addresses Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping. Situation: A security team deploys an updated client but several workstations retain incompatible old posture components.

Question 643

A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Reevaluate endpoint compliance after meaningful security changes and update access decisions when device health becomes unacceptable.
  2. Respond to changing file disposition by tracing historical file activity and isolating or remediating affected endpoints where warranted.
  3. Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices.
  4. Configure Cisco Secure Endpoint policy groups, detection and blocking settings, and connector deployment aligned to host risk.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Posture is device health evidence used in policy; authentication alone does not guarantee an endpoint meets security baseline. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Reevaluate endpoint compliance after meaningful security changes and update access decisions when device health becomes unacceptable. This response applies to Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift, not the controlling requirement in this case. Device trust changes over time; a successful morning compliance check is not permanent proof of safe endpoint state. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

B:

Respond to changing file disposition by tracing historical file activity and isolating or remediating affected endpoints where warranted. This response applies to Malware retrospective disposition response, not the controlling requirement in this case. Cloud malware intelligence can change a file verdict after initial observation; earlier clean classification should not prevent retrospective investigation. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

D:

Configure Cisco Secure Endpoint policy groups, detection and blocking settings, and connector deployment aligned to host risk. This response applies to Cisco Secure Endpoint antimalware policy, not the controlling requirement in this case. Endpoint policy efficacy depends on correct host enrollment, file disposition, behavior detection, and controlled exclusions. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

Question 644

A security investigation finds that a service principal created new access keys but no audit trail links the change to its identity. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect common identity fields, event time windows, index access, detection logic, and sample known-bad events.
  2. Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification.
  3. Inspect IAM bindings, service identity usage, key rotation records, cross-account trust, and cloud audit event delivery.
  4. Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect IAM bindings, service identity usage, key rotation records, cross-account trust, and cloud audit event delivery. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Cloud privilege is an enforceable API control; encrypting data at rest does not prevent an overprivileged identity from invoking destructive actions. The controlled response would be: Restrict cloud roles to necessary actions and resources, require strong identity controls, and log administrative changes independent of workload configuration. Situation: A security investigation finds that a service principal created new access keys but no audit trail links the change to its identity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect common identity fields, event time windows, index access, detection logic, and sample known-bad events. This evidence addresses Splunk detection correlation across cloud feeds; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect IAM bindings, service identity usage, key rotation records, cross-account trust, and cloud audit event delivery. Situation: A security investigation finds that a service principal created new access keys but no audit trail links the change to its identity.

B:

Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification. This evidence addresses Cloud provider customer responsibility map; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect IAM bindings, service identity usage, key rotation records, cross-account trust, and cloud audit event delivery. Situation: A security investigation finds that a service principal created new access keys but no audit trail links the change to its identity.

D:

Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership. This evidence addresses CI CD container and application security lifecycle; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect IAM bindings, service identity usage, key rotation records, cross-account trust, and cloud audit event delivery. Situation: A security investigation finds that a service principal created new access keys but no audit trail links the change to its identity.

Question 645

A scanner marks an internet-facing gateway critical and another equally scored component is not installed anywhere. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. The remediation queue ranks genuinely affected high-impact assets above irrelevant high-score findings and preserves justification.
  2. Injected script is displayed inertly and forged cross-site requests cannot perform authorized state changes without valid defenses.
  3. A forged login page cannot grant privileged access using only a stolen password and abnormal sign-ins generate reviewable alerts.
  4. A hostile document can be summarized without causing the assistant to reveal credentials or invoke unapproved tools.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The remediation queue ranks genuinely affected high-impact assets above irrelevant high-score findings and preserves justification. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. A CVE identifies a disclosed issue and CVSS summarizes severity characteristics; neither alone proves exposure or exploitation of a particular asset. Situation: A scanner marks an internet-facing gateway critical and another equally scored component is not installed anywhere.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Injected script is displayed inertly and forged cross-site requests cannot perform authorized state changes without valid defenses. This outcome tests Web injection and request forgery and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The remediation queue ranks genuinely affected high-impact assets above irrelevant high-score findings and preserves justification. Situation: A scanner marks an internet-facing gateway critical and another equally scored component is not installed anywhere.

C:

A forged login page cannot grant privileged access using only a stolen password and abnormal sign-ins generate reviewable alerts. This outcome tests Credential phishing and account takeover and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The remediation queue ranks genuinely affected high-impact assets above irrelevant high-score findings and preserves justification. Situation: A scanner marks an internet-facing gateway critical and another equally scored component is not installed anywhere.

D:

A hostile document can be summarized without causing the assistant to reveal credentials or invoke unapproved tools. This outcome tests Prompt injection trust boundary and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The remediation queue ranks genuinely affected high-impact assets above irrelevant high-score findings and preserves justification. Situation: A scanner marks an internet-facing gateway critical and another equally scored component is not installed anywhere.

Question 646

A privileged user provides a valid password but does not have the required second factor for an admin portal. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect security agent health, supported application versions, posture evidence, policy exceptions, and dynamic authorization.
  2. Inspect Duo authentication events, factor methods, trusted device enrollment, health signals, and application access policies.
  3. Inspect SSO federation setup, conditional access rules, authenticator strength, location signals, and Duo activity logs.
  4. Inspect event schemas, correlation rules, playbook triggers, action scopes, approvals, and error-handling logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect Duo authentication events, factor methods, trusted device enrollment, health signals, and application access policies. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Multifactor authentication strengthens login assurance, while device trust and adaptive controls independently evaluate session risk. The controlled response would be: Enforce appropriate Cisco Duo MFA and device trust checks for protected applications, considering user role and device security status. Situation: A privileged user provides a valid password but does not have the required second factor for an admin portal.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect security agent health, supported application versions, posture evidence, policy exceptions, and dynamic authorization. This evidence addresses Endpoint application compliance and risk-based access; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect Duo authentication events, factor methods, trusted device enrollment, health signals, and application access policies. Situation: A privileged user provides a valid password but does not have the required second factor for an admin portal.

C:

Inspect SSO federation setup, conditional access rules, authenticator strength, location signals, and Duo activity logs. This evidence addresses Duo Adaptive Access and SSO context; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect Duo authentication events, factor methods, trusted device enrollment, health signals, and application access policies. Situation: A privileged user provides a valid password but does not have the required second factor for an admin portal.

D:

Inspect event schemas, correlation rules, playbook triggers, action scopes, approvals, and error-handling logs. This evidence addresses SIEM and SOAR workflow distinction; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect Duo authentication events, factor methods, trusted device enrollment, health signals, and application access policies. Situation: A privileged user provides a valid password but does not have the required second factor for an admin portal.

Question 647

A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken.
  2. Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping.
  3. Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections.
  4. Inspect exclusion path or hash, triggering detection, business impact, owner approval, and endpoint policy revision.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. An endpoint detection event records what the connector observed and did; a block, quarantine, detection, and retrospective verdict are distinct states. The controlled response would be: Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping. This evidence addresses Cisco Secure Client module and posture visibility; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

C:

Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. This evidence addresses Endpoint malware event prioritization; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

D:

Inspect exclusion path or hash, triggering detection, business impact, owner approval, and endpoint policy revision. This evidence addresses Secure Endpoint response exclusions and policy safety; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

Question 648

A retrieved vendor support note impersonates a system instruction to ignore tenant access checks. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Protect AI retrieval and model dependencies with integrity checks, source approval, access-filtered indexing, and controlled artifact promotion.
  2. Confirmed malicious indicators are shared and acted upon while expired or disputed indicators no longer cause unjustified blocking.
  3. Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions.
  4. Inspect source provenance, attempted instruction overrides, allowed tool verbs, prompt isolation, and server-side authorization results.
  5. Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Prompt injection occurs when lower-trust content is promoted to instruction authority; blocking unsafe tool effects requires enforcement beyond prompt wording. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect source provenance, attempted instruction overrides, allowed tool verbs, prompt isolation, and server-side authorization results. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A retrieved vendor support note impersonates a system instruction to ignore tenant access checks.

D:

Inspect source provenance, attempted instruction overrides, allowed tool verbs, prompt isolation, and server-side authorization results. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Prompt injection occurs when lower-trust content is promoted to instruction authority; blocking unsafe tool effects requires enforcement beyond prompt wording. The controlled response would be: Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A retrieved vendor support note impersonates a system instruction to ignore tenant access checks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Protect AI retrieval and model dependencies with integrity checks, source approval, access-filtered indexing, and controlled artifact promotion. This step could matter for Embedding and model supply chain risk but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions. and Inspect source provenance, attempted instruction overrides, allowed tool verbs, prompt isolation, and server-side authorization results. Situation: A retrieved vendor support note impersonates a system instruction to ignore tenant access checks.

B:

Confirmed malicious indicators are shared and acted upon while expired or disputed indicators no longer cause unjustified blocking. This step could matter for Threat intelligence indicator lifecycle but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions. and Inspect source provenance, attempted instruction overrides, allowed tool verbs, prompt isolation, and server-side authorization results. Situation: A retrieved vendor support note impersonates a system instruction to ignore tenant access checks.

E:

Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. This step could matter for Phishing containment and domain verification but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions. and Inspect source provenance, attempted instruction overrides, allowed tool verbs, prompt isolation, and server-side authorization results. Situation: A retrieved vendor support note impersonates a system instruction to ignore tenant access checks.

Question 649

A retrieved vendor support note impersonates a system instruction to ignore tenant access checks. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Require phishing-resistant multifactor sign-in for sensitive accounts and investigate unusual authentication patterns before accepting credentials as trusted.
  2. Protect AI retrieval and model dependencies with integrity checks, source approval, access-filtered indexing, and controlled artifact promotion.
  3. Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges.
  4. Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Prompt injection occurs when lower-trust content is promoted to instruction authority; blocking unsafe tool effects requires enforcement beyond prompt wording. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect source provenance, attempted instruction overrides, allowed tool verbs, prompt isolation, and server-side authorization results. Situation: A retrieved vendor support note impersonates a system instruction to ignore tenant access checks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Require phishing-resistant multifactor sign-in for sensitive accounts and investigate unusual authentication patterns before accepting credentials as trusted. This response applies to Credential phishing and account takeover, not the controlling requirement in this case. Phishing harvests authentication material; contextual verification and phishing-resistant authenticators reduce credential replay risk without proving all messages are safe. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions. Situation: A retrieved vendor support note impersonates a system instruction to ignore tenant access checks.

B:

Protect AI retrieval and model dependencies with integrity checks, source approval, access-filtered indexing, and controlled artifact promotion. This response applies to Embedding and model supply chain risk, not the controlling requirement in this case. A vector store can surface semantically similar but unauthorized or poisoned content; relevance scores are not authorization proof. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions. Situation: A retrieved vendor support note impersonates a system instruction to ignore tenant access checks.

C:

Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges. This response applies to SQL injection and parameterized queries, not the controlling requirement in this case. SQL injection exploits code/data confusion; input sanitization alone is weaker than parameterization plus least privilege. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions. Situation: A retrieved vendor support note impersonates a system instruction to ignore tenant access checks.

Question 650

Two branches establish IKE security associations but pass no traffic after a new upstream address-translating router is installed. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Use cryptographic hashes for integrity, authenticated key exchange for confidentiality, and maintain a migration inventory for post-quantum risks.
  2. Choose route-based IPsec tunnels when dynamic routed topologies need predictable overlay interfaces and matched security policies.
  3. Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage.
  4. Curate indicators with source confidence, freshness, context, and expiration before distributing to enforcement and investigation tools.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. NAT traversal commonly encapsulates ESP over UDP 4500; a successful IKE handshake alone does not prove data-plane IPsec traffic passes. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. Situation: Two branches establish IKE security associations but pass no traffic after a new upstream address-translating router is installed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use cryptographic hashes for integrity, authenticated key exchange for confidentiality, and maintain a migration inventory for post-quantum risks. This response applies to Cryptographic hashes and post-quantum planning, not the controlling requirement in this case. A bare hash does not provide secrecy; post-quantum preparation requires crypto-agility planning rather than claiming traditional algorithms are already future-proof. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. Situation: Two branches establish IKE security associations but pass no traffic after a new upstream address-translating router is installed.

B:

Choose route-based IPsec tunnels when dynamic routed topologies need predictable overlay interfaces and matched security policies. This response applies to Route-based versus policy-based VPN design, not the controlling requirement in this case. Route-based VPN separates routing decisions from the cryptographic tunnel interface whereas policy-based VPN relies on matching crypto traffic definitions. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. Situation: Two branches establish IKE security associations but pass no traffic after a new upstream address-translating router is installed.

D:

Curate indicators with source confidence, freshness, context, and expiration before distributing to enforcement and investigation tools. This response applies to Threat intelligence indicator lifecycle, not the controlling requirement in this case. Threat indicators are leads with changing confidence, not immutable proof that every matching host is compromised. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. Situation: Two branches establish IKE security associations but pass no traffic after a new upstream address-translating router is installed.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests