cert
cert-1
cert-2

Pass Cisco 350-701 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed!

Get 100% Latest Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers to Pass the Actual Exam!
30 Days Free Updates, Instant Download!

cert-5
cert-6
350-701 Exam - Verified By Experts
350-701 Premium Bundle
$29.98

350-701 Premium Bundle

$79.99
$109.97
  • Premium File 789 Questions & Answers. Last update: Nov 02, 2026
  • Training Course 299 Video Lectures
  • Study Guide 701 Pages
 
$109.97
$79.99
accept 48 downloads in last 7 days
block-screenshots
Purchase Cisco 350-701 Exam Training Products Individually
Cisco 350-701 Premium File
Premium File 789 Q&A
$76.99$69.99
Cisco 350-701 Video Training Course
Training Course 299 Lectures
$21.99 $19.99
Cisco 350-701 PDF Study Guide
Study Guide 701 Pages
$21.99 $19.99
Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 63

Question 620

A security engineer resolves private app timeouts by allowing all internal hosts, unintentionally defeating application-scoped access. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored.
  2. Unsupported AI destinations cannot receive restricted records while authorized safe business use is distinguishable in audit logs.
  3. A failover test maintains authorized access and a broken backend is diagnosed without broadly opening the private network.
  4. A contractor reaches one approved HR web app without gaining routed reachability to unrelated production subnets.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A failover test maintains authorized access and a broken backend is diagnosed without broadly opening the private network. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. A successful user login proves authentication, not connector reachability or correct backend application mapping. Situation: A security engineer resolves private app timeouts by allowing all internal hosts, unintentionally defeating application-scoped access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. This outcome tests Investigate domain risk score interpretation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A failover test maintains authorized access and a broken backend is diagnosed without broadly opening the private network. Situation: A security engineer resolves private app timeouts by allowing all internal hosts, unintentionally defeating application-scoped access.

B:

Unsupported AI destinations cannot receive restricted records while authorized safe business use is distinguishable in audit logs. This outcome tests AI application guardrails and shadow AI and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A failover test maintains authorized access and a broken backend is diagnosed without broadly opening the private network. Situation: A security engineer resolves private app timeouts by allowing all internal hosts, unintentionally defeating application-scoped access.

D:

A contractor reaches one approved HR web app without gaining routed reachability to unrelated production subnets. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Access private app access and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A failover test maintains authorized access and a broken backend is diagnosed without broadly opening the private network. Situation: A security engineer resolves private app timeouts by allowing all internal hosts, unintentionally defeating application-scoped access.

Question 621

An employee mailbox receives a QR-code phishing message with an apparently normal display name. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode.
  2. A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit.
  3. Approved endpoint protection components report the expected state and client connectivity reflects configured enterprise policy.
  4. The deployment achieves its declared pre-delivery or post-delivery protection without claiming a journaling-only path is an inline SMTP gateway.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Email Threat Defense uses message and behavioral context; an authenticated sender domain or clean attachment does not prove a message is safe. Situation: An employee mailbox receives a QR-code phishing message with an apparently normal display name.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit. This outcome tests Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode. Situation: An employee mailbox receives a QR-code phishing message with an apparently normal display name.

C:

Approved endpoint protection components report the expected state and client connectivity reflects configured enterprise policy. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Client module and posture visibility and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode. Situation: An employee mailbox receives a QR-code phishing message with an apparently normal display name.

D:

The deployment achieves its declared pre-delivery or post-delivery protection without claiming a journaling-only path is an inline SMTP gateway. This outcome tests Email Threat Defense deployment mode selection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode. Situation: An employee mailbox receives a QR-code phishing message with an apparently normal display name.

Question 622

A mobile clinician changes wired ports and loses intended access because a manual subnet ACL assumed a fixed location. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Intended application traffic matches a narrow allow rule and unauthorized flows are denied with traceable evidence.
  2. A controlled application probe increments appropriate encrypt/decrypt counters on both peers and succeeds in both directions.
  3. A finance user reaches approved systems while guest traffic cannot cross the group policy boundary despite sharing switching infrastructure.
  4. Spoofed gateway ARP frames are rejected while authorized static-IP hosts continue normal access with explicit bindings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A finance user reaches approved systems while guest traffic cannot cross the group policy boundary despite sharing switching infrastructure. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. VLANs group Layer 2 broadcast domains; SGT-based policies can follow endpoint identity across supported network paths independent of a particular subnet. Situation: A mobile clinician changes wired ports and loses intended access because a manual subnet ACL assumed a fixed location.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Intended application traffic matches a narrow allow rule and unauthorized flows are denied with traceable evidence. This outcome tests FTD access control rule ordering and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A finance user reaches approved systems while guest traffic cannot cross the group policy boundary despite sharing switching infrastructure. Situation: A mobile clinician changes wired ports and loses intended access because a manual subnet ACL assumed a fixed location.

B:

A controlled application probe increments appropriate encrypt/decrypt counters on both peers and succeeds in both directions. This outcome tests FTD VPN up but no protected data and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A finance user reaches approved systems while guest traffic cannot cross the group policy boundary despite sharing switching infrastructure. Situation: A mobile clinician changes wired ports and loses intended access because a manual subnet ACL assumed a fixed location.

D:

Spoofed gateway ARP frames are rejected while authorized static-IP hosts continue normal access with explicit bindings. This outcome tests Dynamic ARP inspection and spoofed gateway and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A finance user reaches approved systems while guest traffic cannot cross the group policy boundary despite sharing switching infrastructure. Situation: A mobile clinician changes wired ports and loses intended access because a manual subnet ACL assumed a fixed location.

Question 623

An agency needs shared community infrastructure but must retain documented responsibility for tenant access. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect regulatory hosting needs, SaaS usage, sanctioned tenants, visibility requirements, and access control capabilities.
  2. Equivalent approved network and identity restrictions work on each target cloud without assuming policy formats are interchangeable.
  3. Inspect cloud route tables, network attachment paths, traffic direction, security policy, and supported deployment scope.
  4. Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label.
  5. Apply tenant-scoped identity, secure sharing, and data-access governance to SaaS workflows including third-party integration tokens.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect regulatory hosting needs, SaaS usage, sanctioned tenants, visibility requirements, and access control capabilities. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A CASB adds visibility and policy to cloud application usage; deployment model choice alone does not establish data governance. The controlled response would be: Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: An agency needs shared community infrastructure but must retain documented responsibility for tenant access.

D:

Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A CASB adds visibility and policy to cloud application usage; deployment model choice alone does not establish data governance. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect regulatory hosting needs, SaaS usage, sanctioned tenants, visibility requirements, and access control capabilities. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: An agency needs shared community infrastructure but must retain documented responsibility for tenant access.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Equivalent approved network and identity restrictions work on each target cloud without assuming policy formats are interchangeable. This step could matter for Multicloud identity and centralized policy governance but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. and Inspect regulatory hosting needs, SaaS usage, sanctioned tenants, visibility requirements, and access control capabilities. Situation: An agency needs shared community infrastructure but must retain documented responsibility for tenant access.

C:

Inspect cloud route tables, network attachment paths, traffic direction, security policy, and supported deployment scope. This step could matter for Cisco Multicloud Defense traffic policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. and Inspect regulatory hosting needs, SaaS usage, sanctioned tenants, visibility requirements, and access control capabilities. Situation: An agency needs shared community infrastructure but must retain documented responsibility for tenant access.

E:

Apply tenant-scoped identity, secure sharing, and data-access governance to SaaS workflows including third-party integration tokens. This step could matter for SaaS configuration and tenant boundary protection but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. and Inspect regulatory hosting needs, SaaS usage, sanctioned tenants, visibility requirements, and access control capabilities. Situation: An agency needs shared community infrastructure but must retain documented responsibility for tenant access.

Question 624

A workstation sends thousands of long random-looking DNS queries to one newly registered external domain. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Correlate unusual encrypted uploads and sanctioned cloud-service use with identity, DLP, destination, and endpoint telemetry.
  2. Inspect security agent health, supported application versions, posture evidence, policy exceptions, and dynamic authorization.
  3. Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process.
  4. Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment.
  5. A riskier session receives a stronger verification or denial decision without blocking routine authorized access unnecessarily.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. DNS is a name-resolution protocol but can carry encoded data in labels or answers; unusual queries require contextual analysis to avoid false positives. The controlled response would be: Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A workstation sends thousands of long random-looking DNS queries to one newly registered external domain.

D:

Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. DNS is a name-resolution protocol but can carry encoded data in labels or answers; unusual queries require contextual analysis to avoid false positives. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A workstation sends thousands of long random-looking DNS queries to one newly registered external domain.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Correlate unusual encrypted uploads and sanctioned cloud-service use with identity, DLP, destination, and endpoint telemetry. This step could matter for HTTPS and cloud-storage exfiltration containment but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment. and Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. Situation: A workstation sends thousands of long random-looking DNS queries to one newly registered external domain.

B:

Inspect security agent health, supported application versions, posture evidence, policy exceptions, and dynamic authorization. This step could matter for Endpoint application compliance and risk-based access but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment. and Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. Situation: A workstation sends thousands of long random-looking DNS queries to one newly registered external domain.

E:

A riskier session receives a stronger verification or denial decision without blocking routine authorized access unnecessarily. This step could matter for Duo Adaptive Access and SSO context but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment. and Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. Situation: A workstation sends thousands of long random-looking DNS queries to one newly registered external domain.

Question 625

A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings.
  2. Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership.
  3. Inspect vendor resource types, identity federation, policy inheritance, enforcement integration, and drift reports.
  4. Inspect Terraform or similar plan diff, policy-as-code results, source review, sensitive variable handling, and approver identity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. DevSecOps embeds security early in delivery while preserving trusted runtime controls; scanning after production is not an adequate release gate. The controlled response would be: Combine dependency, container, and code security checks with change approval and deployment rollback across a DevSecOps pipeline. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings. This evidence addresses Cloud security posture policy selection; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

C:

Inspect vendor resource types, identity federation, policy inheritance, enforcement integration, and drift reports. This evidence addresses Multicloud identity and centralized policy governance; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

D:

Inspect Terraform or similar plan diff, policy-as-code results, source review, sensitive variable handling, and approver identity. This evidence addresses Infrastructure as Code security gate; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

Question 626

An engineer installs a kernel telemetry probe on mixed Linux versions and sees gaps on unsupported nodes. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring.
  2. Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label.
  3. Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy.
  4. Configure Splunk cloud log inputs using supported integrations and correctly tagged sourcetypes, timestamps, and access to security indexes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. eBPF enables efficient programmable Linux kernel instrumentation, but security capabilities depend on the actual sensor and deployment configuration. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect supported kernel/runtime versions, telemetry capture points, performance overhead, event schemas, and control ownership. Situation: An engineer installs a kernel telemetry probe on mixed Linux versions and sees gaps on unsupported nodes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring. This response applies to Container workload identity and image governance, not the controlling requirement in this case. A container isolates processes but is not a complete trust boundary; host privileges, image supply chain, and runtime identity remain material. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. Situation: An engineer installs a kernel telemetry probe on mixed Linux versions and sees gaps on unsupported nodes.

B:

Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. This response applies to Cloud deployment and CASB suitability, not the controlling requirement in this case. A CASB adds visibility and policy to cloud application usage; deployment model choice alone does not establish data governance. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. Situation: An engineer installs a kernel telemetry probe on mixed Linux versions and sees gaps on unsupported nodes.

D:

Configure Splunk cloud log inputs using supported integrations and correctly tagged sourcetypes, timestamps, and access to security indexes. This response applies to Splunk cloud source onboarding, not the controlling requirement in this case. Ingesting a log feed is not equivalent to normalizing it for investigations; sourcetype, event time, and parser correctness matter. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. Situation: An engineer installs a kernel telemetry probe on mixed Linux versions and sees gaps on unsupported nodes.

Question 627

A site-to-site VPN appears up but return traffic is being translated to an address outside expected selectors. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Approved branch traffic traverses the encrypted tunnel and response packets return through the selected protected path.
  2. Compliant users receive intended protected routes and application access without exposing unrelated networks.
  3. Compromising one application tier does not grant unrestricted lateral access to adjacent protected workloads.
  4. Spoofed gateway ARP frames are rejected while authorized static-IP hosts continue normal access with explicit bindings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Approved branch traffic traverses the encrypted tunnel and response packets return through the selected protected path. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Successful VPN peer authentication does not prove application forwarding; selectors, route tables, NAT, and access policies also govern data traffic. Situation: A site-to-site VPN appears up but return traffic is being translated to an address outside expected selectors.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Compliant users receive intended protected routes and application access without exposing unrelated networks. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Client remote VPN policy and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Approved branch traffic traverses the encrypted tunnel and response packets return through the selected protected path. Situation: A site-to-site VPN appears up but return traffic is being translated to an address outside expected selectors.

C:

Compromising one application tier does not grant unrestricted lateral access to adjacent protected workloads. This outcome tests North south versus east west segmentation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Approved branch traffic traverses the encrypted tunnel and response packets return through the selected protected path. Situation: A site-to-site VPN appears up but return traffic is being translated to an address outside expected selectors.

D:

Spoofed gateway ARP frames are rejected while authorized static-IP hosts continue normal access with explicit bindings. This outcome tests Dynamic ARP inspection and spoofed gateway and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Approved branch traffic traverses the encrypted tunnel and response packets return through the selected protected path. Situation: A site-to-site VPN appears up but return traffic is being translated to an address outside expected selectors.

Question 628

A security team wants to patch by CVSS alone despite one vulnerable service being isolated behind a disabled interface. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data.
  2. Differentiate traffic-exhaustion attacks from host malware by inspecting network utilization, service saturation, and endpoint behavior before choosing containment.
  3. Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage.
  4. Apply context-aware output encoding, anti-CSRF protections, and correct cookie controls at the relevant trust boundary.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A CVE identifies a disclosed issue and CVSS summarizes severity characteristics; neither alone proves exposure or exploitation of a particular asset. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. Situation: A security team wants to patch by CVSS alone despite one vulnerable service being isolated behind a disabled interface.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Differentiate traffic-exhaustion attacks from host malware by inspecting network utilization, service saturation, and endpoint behavior before choosing containment. This response applies to DDoS versus endpoint malware diagnosis, not the controlling requirement in this case. A volumetric DDoS overwhelms service capacity whereas a Trojan executes on a host; discriminating evidence is required for targeted controls. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data. Situation: A security team wants to patch by CVSS alone despite one vulnerable service being isolated behind a disabled interface.

C:

Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. This response applies to IPsec IKE and NAT traversal, not the controlling requirement in this case. NAT traversal commonly encapsulates ESP over UDP 4500; a successful IKE handshake alone does not prove data-plane IPsec traffic passes. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data. Situation: A security team wants to patch by CVSS alone despite one vulnerable service being isolated behind a disabled interface.

D:

Apply context-aware output encoding, anti-CSRF protections, and correct cookie controls at the relevant trust boundary. This response applies to Web injection and request forgery, not the controlling requirement in this case. XSS executes attacker-controlled browser code, while CSRF tricks an authenticated browser into submitting unintended operations; their mitigations differ. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data. Situation: A security team wants to patch by CVSS alone despite one vulnerable service being isolated behind a disabled interface.

Question 629

A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A suspicious attachment receives a documented risk verdict supported by observed behavior without executing it on a production endpoint.
  2. A controlled malicious test file is detected or blocked under the intended endpoint policy while approved software remains functional.
  3. A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated.
  4. A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Posture is device health evidence used in policy; authentication alone does not guarantee an endpoint meets security baseline. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A suspicious attachment receives a documented risk verdict supported by observed behavior without executing it on a production endpoint. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Malware Analytics detonation evidence and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

B:

A controlled malicious test file is detected or blocked under the intended endpoint policy while approved software remains functional. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Endpoint antimalware policy and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

D:

A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit. This outcome tests Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

Question 630

A network controller reaches NETCONF over SSH but uses a shared administrative credential for all developers. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect device version, benchmark applicability, privileged account policies, enabled services, management exposure, and exception approvals.
  2. The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards.
  3. Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views.
  4. Protect programmable device management with authenticated endpoints, transport encryption, role authorization, and change transaction logging.
  5. Inspect SSH/HTTPS management services, NETCONF or RESTCONF configuration, model schema, access roles, and operation results.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Protect programmable device management with authenticated endpoints, transport encryption, role authorization, and change transaction logging. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Programmable interfaces are management planes with security obligations comparable to CLI access; enabling RESTCONF does not itself validate an automation request. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect SSH/HTTPS management services, NETCONF or RESTCONF configuration, model schema, access roles, and operation results. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A network controller reaches NETCONF over SSH but uses a shared administrative credential for all developers.

E:

Inspect SSH/HTTPS management services, NETCONF or RESTCONF configuration, model schema, access roles, and operation results. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Programmable interfaces are management planes with security obligations comparable to CLI access; enabling RESTCONF does not itself validate an automation request. The controlled response would be: Protect programmable device management with authenticated endpoints, transport encryption, role authorization, and change transaction logging. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A network controller reaches NETCONF over SSH but uses a shared administrative credential for all developers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect device version, benchmark applicability, privileged account policies, enabled services, management exposure, and exception approvals. This step could matter for CIS device configuration baseline assessment but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Protect programmable device management with authenticated endpoints, transport encryption, role authorization, and change transaction logging. and Inspect SSH/HTTPS management services, NETCONF or RESTCONF configuration, model schema, access roles, and operation results. Situation: A network controller reaches NETCONF over SSH but uses a shared administrative credential for all developers.

B:

The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards. This step could matter for FTD IKE negotiation failure isolation but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Protect programmable device management with authenticated endpoints, transport encryption, role authorization, and change transaction logging. and Inspect SSH/HTTPS management services, NETCONF or RESTCONF configuration, model schema, access roles, and operation results. Situation: A network controller reaches NETCONF over SSH but uses a shared administrative credential for all developers.

C:

Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. This step could matter for SNMPv3 authenticated encrypted polling but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Protect programmable device management with authenticated endpoints, transport encryption, role authorization, and change transaction logging. and Inspect SSH/HTTPS management services, NETCONF or RESTCONF configuration, model schema, access roles, and operation results. Situation: A network controller reaches NETCONF over SSH but uses a shared administrative credential for all developers.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests