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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 67

Question 660

An IPS signature blocks a legitimate vendor protocol after a ruleset update and the team needs a scoped tuning decision. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Apply application-aware restrictions and appropriate URL categories to FTD policies while checking TLS and application identification limits.
  2. An unauthorized small switch cannot flood excessive MAC identities or form an unintended Layer 2 loop without detection.
  3. Inspect endpoint identity assignments, VLAN membership, SGT propagation, trustsec matrix rules, and routed reachability.
  4. Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases.
  5. Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A network allow decision alone does not guarantee intrusion inspection; relevant inline policy and traffic visibility must be enabled. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: An IPS signature blocks a legitimate vendor protocol after a ruleset update and the team needs a scoped tuning decision.

E:

Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A network allow decision alone does not guarantee intrusion inspection; relevant inline policy and traffic visibility must be enabled. The controlled response would be: Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: An IPS signature blocks a legitimate vendor protocol after a ruleset update and the team needs a scoped tuning decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Apply application-aware restrictions and appropriate URL categories to FTD policies while checking TLS and application identification limits. This step could matter for Application visibility control and URL filtering but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases. and Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence. Situation: An IPS signature blocks a legitimate vendor protocol after a ruleset update and the team needs a scoped tuning decision.

B:

An unauthorized small switch cannot flood excessive MAC identities or form an unintended Layer 2 loop without detection. This step could matter for Layer 2 port hardening and storm control but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases. and Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence. Situation: An IPS signature blocks a legitimate vendor protocol after a ruleset update and the team needs a scoped tuning decision.

C:

Inspect endpoint identity assignments, VLAN membership, SGT propagation, trustsec matrix rules, and routed reachability. This step could matter for VLAN segmentation and SGT policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases. and Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence. Situation: An IPS signature blocks a legitimate vendor protocol after a ruleset update and the team needs a scoped tuning decision.

Question 661

An employee mailbox receives a QR-code phishing message with an apparently normal display name. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Configure Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense to detect or remediate phishing and business email compromise using appropriate supported integration and policy.
  2. Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner.
  3. Inspect sender authentication, impersonation indications, inbound/outbound message direction, detection verdict, and remediation authorization.
  4. Choose supported Email Threat Defense supplementary mailbox visibility or inline gateway enforcement according to platform and pre-delivery requirements.
  5. A file reclassified as malicious triggers investigation and containment of hosts that handled it earlier.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Configure Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense to detect or remediate phishing and business email compromise using appropriate supported integration and policy. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Email Threat Defense uses message and behavioral context; an authenticated sender domain or clean attachment does not prove a message is safe. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect sender authentication, impersonation indications, inbound/outbound message direction, detection verdict, and remediation authorization. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: An employee mailbox receives a QR-code phishing message with an apparently normal display name.

C:

Inspect sender authentication, impersonation indications, inbound/outbound message direction, detection verdict, and remediation authorization. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Email Threat Defense uses message and behavioral context; an authenticated sender domain or clean attachment does not prove a message is safe. The controlled response would be: Configure Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense to detect or remediate phishing and business email compromise using appropriate supported integration and policy. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: An employee mailbox receives a QR-code phishing message with an apparently normal display name.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. This step could matter for MDM device enrollment and inventory but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense to detect or remediate phishing and business email compromise using appropriate supported integration and policy. and Inspect sender authentication, impersonation indications, inbound/outbound message direction, detection verdict, and remediation authorization. Situation: An employee mailbox receives a QR-code phishing message with an apparently normal display name.

D:

Choose supported Email Threat Defense supplementary mailbox visibility or inline gateway enforcement according to platform and pre-delivery requirements. This step could matter for Email Threat Defense deployment mode selection but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense to detect or remediate phishing and business email compromise using appropriate supported integration and policy. and Inspect sender authentication, impersonation indications, inbound/outbound message direction, detection verdict, and remediation authorization. Situation: An employee mailbox receives a QR-code phishing message with an apparently normal display name.

E:

A file reclassified as malicious triggers investigation and containment of hosts that handled it earlier. This step could matter for Malware retrospective disposition response but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense to detect or remediate phishing and business email compromise using appropriate supported integration and policy. and Inspect sender authentication, impersonation indications, inbound/outbound message direction, detection verdict, and remediation authorization. Situation: An employee mailbox receives a QR-code phishing message with an apparently normal display name.

Question 662

A help desk sees a healthy Secure Client tray icon and assumes malware or DNS protections are enabled without checking modules. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken.
  2. Inspect sample provenance, sandbox verdict, observed process/file/network behavior, detonation environment, and indicator confidence.
  3. Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner.
  4. Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Secure Client is a modular endpoint platform; enabling a VPN tunnel does not automatically mean all security modules or postures are active. The controlled response would be: Deploy appropriate Cisco Secure Client modules for supported connectivity and endpoint posture requirements and verify the component state. Situation: A help desk sees a healthy Secure Client tray icon and assumes malware or DNS protections are enabled without checking modules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. This evidence addresses Secure Endpoint detection event trajectory; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping. Situation: A help desk sees a healthy Secure Client tray icon and assumes malware or DNS protections are enabled without checking modules.

B:

Inspect sample provenance, sandbox verdict, observed process/file/network behavior, detonation environment, and indicator confidence. This evidence addresses Cisco Secure Malware Analytics detonation evidence; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping. Situation: A help desk sees a healthy Secure Client tray icon and assumes malware or DNS protections are enabled without checking modules.

C:

Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. This evidence addresses MDM device enrollment and inventory; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping. Situation: A help desk sees a healthy Secure Client tray icon and assumes malware or DNS protections are enabled without checking modules.

Question 663

A company already has SD-WAN and asks which security services can provide identity-based cloud controls without redesigning every link. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Managed remote users are inspected and authorized consistently while unmanaged or excluded sessions cannot silently bypass required protection.
  2. Unsupported AI destinations cannot receive restricted records while authorized safe business use is distinguishable in audit logs.
  3. A suspicious destination is associated with affected users and a tested response without sweeping unrelated shared cloud infrastructure.
  4. The architecture provides required identity-aware web or private application protection without mislabeling security services alone as an SD-WAN fabric.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The architecture provides required identity-aware web or private application protection without mislabeling security services alone as an SD-WAN fabric. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Security Service Edge focuses security functions; Secure Access Service Edge combines networking or WAN capabilities with cloud-delivered security in an integrated architecture. Situation: A company already has SD-WAN and asks which security services can provide identity-based cloud controls without redesigning every link.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Managed remote users are inspected and authorized consistently while unmanaged or excluded sessions cannot silently bypass required protection. This outcome tests Remote identity and traffic steering in SSE and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The architecture provides required identity-aware web or private application protection without mislabeling security services alone as an SD-WAN fabric. Situation: A company already has SD-WAN and asks which security services can provide identity-based cloud controls without redesigning every link.

B:

Unsupported AI destinations cannot receive restricted records while authorized safe business use is distinguishable in audit logs. This outcome tests AI application guardrails and shadow AI and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The architecture provides required identity-aware web or private application protection without mislabeling security services alone as an SD-WAN fabric. Situation: A company already has SD-WAN and asks which security services can provide identity-based cloud controls without redesigning every link.

C:

A suspicious destination is associated with affected users and a tested response without sweeping unrelated shared cloud infrastructure. This outcome tests Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The architecture provides required identity-aware web or private application protection without mislabeling security services alone as an SD-WAN fabric. Situation: A company already has SD-WAN and asks which security services can provide identity-based cloud controls without redesigning every link.

Question 664

A SOC expects an eBPF monitoring-only agent to block a malicious syscall even though no prevention action is enabled. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect supported kernel/runtime versions, telemetry capture points, performance overhead, event schemas, and control ownership.
  2. Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring.
  3. Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy.
  4. Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership.
  5. Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect supported kernel/runtime versions, telemetry capture points, performance overhead, event schemas, and control ownership. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. eBPF enables efficient programmable Linux kernel instrumentation, but security capabilities depend on the actual sensor and deployment configuration. The controlled response would be: Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A SOC expects an eBPF monitoring-only agent to block a malicious syscall even though no prevention action is enabled.

E:

Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. eBPF enables efficient programmable Linux kernel instrumentation, but security capabilities depend on the actual sensor and deployment configuration. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect supported kernel/runtime versions, telemetry capture points, performance overhead, event schemas, and control ownership. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A SOC expects an eBPF monitoring-only agent to block a malicious syscall even though no prevention action is enabled.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring. This step could matter for Container workload identity and image governance but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. and Inspect supported kernel/runtime versions, telemetry capture points, performance overhead, event schemas, and control ownership. Situation: A SOC expects an eBPF monitoring-only agent to block a malicious syscall even though no prevention action is enabled.

C:

Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy. This step could matter for Cloud application encryption and key responsibility but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. and Inspect supported kernel/runtime versions, telemetry capture points, performance overhead, event schemas, and control ownership. Situation: A SOC expects an eBPF monitoring-only agent to block a malicious syscall even though no prevention action is enabled.

D:

Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership. This step could matter for CI CD container and application security lifecycle but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. and Inspect supported kernel/runtime versions, telemetry capture points, performance overhead, event schemas, and control ownership. Situation: A SOC expects an eBPF monitoring-only agent to block a malicious syscall even though no prevention action is enabled.

Question 665

A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Restrict cloud roles to necessary actions and resources, require strong identity controls, and log administrative changes independent of workload configuration.
  2. Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy.
  3. Correlate normalized cloud identity, network, and workload events in Splunk with scoped detections and validated false-positive behavior.
  4. Document which security tasks belong to the provider versus the customer at each IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS layer and assign accountable owners.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Document which security tasks belong to the provider versus the customer at each IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS layer and assign accountable owners. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Cloud providers secure their portion of the stack, but moving an application to SaaS does not eliminate the customer's identity and data obligations. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Restrict cloud roles to necessary actions and resources, require strong identity controls, and log administrative changes independent of workload configuration. This response applies to Cloud IAM least privilege and logging, not the controlling requirement in this case. Cloud privilege is an enforceable API control; encrypting data at rest does not prevent an overprivileged identity from invoking destructive actions. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Document which security tasks belong to the provider versus the customer at each IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS layer and assign accountable owners. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

B:

Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. This response applies to eBPF security telemetry scope, not the controlling requirement in this case. eBPF enables efficient programmable Linux kernel instrumentation, but security capabilities depend on the actual sensor and deployment configuration. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Document which security tasks belong to the provider versus the customer at each IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS layer and assign accountable owners. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

C:

Correlate normalized cloud identity, network, and workload events in Splunk with scoped detections and validated false-positive behavior. This response applies to Splunk detection correlation across cloud feeds, not the controlling requirement in this case. A SIEM correlation rule depends on reliable field extraction and shared identity context; large event counts alone do not equal threat detection. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Document which security tasks belong to the provider versus the customer at each IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS layer and assign accountable owners. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

Question 666

A suspicious email attachment is followed by endpoint execution and outbound DNS activity, but analysts see separate alerts in different products. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Correlate Cisco XDR observables, endpoint detections, email, and network events to establish incident scope and response before automating containment.
  2. Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs.
  3. Use SIEM to search and correlate security telemetry and SOAR playbooks to coordinate authorized investigative or response actions.
  4. A supported supplicant joins the assigned network only after successful authentication and policy assignment.
  5. Inspect observable sightings, integration health, incident timeline, detection confidence, and action permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Correlate Cisco XDR observables, endpoint detections, email, and network events to establish incident scope and response before automating containment. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. XDR brings signals across integrated controls; cross-product visibility depends on healthy connectors and source coverage. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect observable sightings, integration health, incident timeline, detection confidence, and action permissions. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A suspicious email attachment is followed by endpoint execution and outbound DNS activity, but analysts see separate alerts in different products.

E:

Inspect observable sightings, integration health, incident timeline, detection confidence, and action permissions. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. XDR brings signals across integrated controls; cross-product visibility depends on healthy connectors and source coverage. The controlled response would be: Correlate Cisco XDR observables, endpoint detections, email, and network events to establish incident scope and response before automating containment. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A suspicious email attachment is followed by endpoint execution and outbound DNS activity, but analysts see separate alerts in different products.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs. This step could matter for Certificate identity and noncompliant access segregation but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Correlate Cisco XDR observables, endpoint detections, email, and network events to establish incident scope and response before automating containment. and Inspect observable sightings, integration health, incident timeline, detection confidence, and action permissions. Situation: A suspicious email attachment is followed by endpoint execution and outbound DNS activity, but analysts see separate alerts in different products.

C:

Use SIEM to search and correlate security telemetry and SOAR playbooks to coordinate authorized investigative or response actions. This step could matter for SIEM and SOAR workflow distinction but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Correlate Cisco XDR observables, endpoint detections, email, and network events to establish incident scope and response before automating containment. and Inspect observable sightings, integration health, incident timeline, detection confidence, and action permissions. Situation: A suspicious email attachment is followed by endpoint execution and outbound DNS activity, but analysts see separate alerts in different products.

D:

A supported supplicant joins the assigned network only after successful authentication and policy assignment. This step could matter for 802.1X port-based access with Cisco ISE but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Correlate Cisco XDR observables, endpoint detections, email, and network events to establish incident scope and response before automating containment. and Inspect observable sightings, integration health, incident timeline, detection confidence, and action permissions. Situation: A suspicious email attachment is followed by endpoint execution and outbound DNS activity, but analysts see separate alerts in different products.

Question 667

A mobile clinician changes wired ports and loses intended access because a manual subnet ACL assumed a fixed location. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect ingress and internal traffic paths, application dependencies, firewall capabilities, and current east-west allow rules.
  2. Inspect DHCP snooping bindings or static ARP ACLs, trusted links, validation drops, and legitimate static IP exceptions.
  3. Inspect device version, benchmark applicability, privileged account policies, enabled services, management exposure, and exception approvals.
  4. Inspect endpoint identity assignments, VLAN membership, SGT propagation, trustsec matrix rules, and routed reachability.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect endpoint identity assignments, VLAN membership, SGT propagation, trustsec matrix rules, and routed reachability. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. VLANs group Layer 2 broadcast domains; SGT-based policies can follow endpoint identity across supported network paths independent of a particular subnet. The controlled response would be: Separate groups with VLAN boundaries and apply identity or context-based SGT policy where infrastructure supports scalable group enforcement. Situation: A mobile clinician changes wired ports and loses intended access because a manual subnet ACL assumed a fixed location.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect ingress and internal traffic paths, application dependencies, firewall capabilities, and current east-west allow rules. This evidence addresses North south versus east west segmentation; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect endpoint identity assignments, VLAN membership, SGT propagation, trustsec matrix rules, and routed reachability. Situation: A mobile clinician changes wired ports and loses intended access because a manual subnet ACL assumed a fixed location.

B:

Inspect DHCP snooping bindings or static ARP ACLs, trusted links, validation drops, and legitimate static IP exceptions. This evidence addresses Dynamic ARP inspection and spoofed gateway; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect endpoint identity assignments, VLAN membership, SGT propagation, trustsec matrix rules, and routed reachability. Situation: A mobile clinician changes wired ports and loses intended access because a manual subnet ACL assumed a fixed location.

C:

Inspect device version, benchmark applicability, privileged account policies, enabled services, management exposure, and exception approvals. This evidence addresses CIS device configuration baseline assessment; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect endpoint identity assignments, VLAN membership, SGT propagation, trustsec matrix rules, and routed reachability. Situation: A mobile clinician changes wired ports and loses intended access because a manual subnet ACL assumed a fixed location.

Question 668

An employee tries to upload employee account numbers to personal cloud storage from a managed browser. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions.
  2. Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy.
  3. Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions.
  4. Inspect AI application usage records, policy category, sensitive text classification, prompt upload paths, and employee roles.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. DLP identifies and governs data movement but its coverage depends on content visibility, supported connectors, and correctly scoped classifiers. The controlled response would be: Create data loss prevention policies for defined sensitive patterns and approved destinations, with detection tuning and response actions. Situation: An employee tries to upload employee account numbers to personal cloud storage from a managed browser.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. This evidence addresses Cisco Secure Access private app access; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions. Situation: An employee tries to upload employee account numbers to personal cloud storage from a managed browser.

B:

Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. This evidence addresses Remote identity and traffic steering in SSE; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions. Situation: An employee tries to upload employee account numbers to personal cloud storage from a managed browser.

D:

Inspect AI application usage records, policy category, sensitive text classification, prompt upload paths, and employee roles. This evidence addresses AI application guardrails and shadow AI; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions. Situation: An employee tries to upload employee account numbers to personal cloud storage from a managed browser.

Question 669

A remote vendor passes MFA but Secure Client posture reports no current antimalware signatures. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit.
  2. High-impact active behavior receives response ahead of low-context historical detections, with reasons recorded.
  3. A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated.
  4. Managed endpoints reach the approved patch and configuration floor or are restricted until remediation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Posture is device health evidence used in policy; authentication alone does not guarantee an endpoint meets security baseline. Situation: A remote vendor passes MFA but Secure Client posture reports no current antimalware signatures.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit. This outcome tests Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. Situation: A remote vendor passes MFA but Secure Client posture reports no current antimalware signatures.

B:

High-impact active behavior receives response ahead of low-context historical detections, with reasons recorded. This outcome tests Endpoint malware event prioritization and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. Situation: A remote vendor passes MFA but Secure Client posture reports no current antimalware signatures.

D:

Managed endpoints reach the approved patch and configuration floor or are restricted until remediation. This outcome tests MDM application and patch compliance and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. Situation: A remote vendor passes MFA but Secure Client posture reports no current antimalware signatures.

Question 670

A cloud team changes encryption settings manually after apply and later code runs restore the insecure configuration. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed.
  2. A critical vulnerable dependency blocks promotion and approved remediation produces an auditable releasable artifact.
  3. A test cloud privilege escalation is detected with linked sign-in and API activity rather than isolated low-context alerts.
  4. A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Infrastructure as Code makes misconfiguration reproducible; peer review and predeployment policy gates reduce repeated risky settings. Situation: A cloud team changes encryption settings manually after apply and later code runs restore the insecure configuration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. This outcome tests Cloud provider customer responsibility map and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created. Situation: A cloud team changes encryption settings manually after apply and later code runs restore the insecure configuration.

B:

A critical vulnerable dependency blocks promotion and approved remediation produces an auditable releasable artifact. This outcome tests CI CD container and application security lifecycle and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created. Situation: A cloud team changes encryption settings manually after apply and later code runs restore the insecure configuration.

C:

A test cloud privilege escalation is detected with linked sign-in and API activity rather than isolated low-context alerts. This outcome tests Splunk detection correlation across cloud feeds and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created. Situation: A cloud team changes encryption settings manually after apply and later code runs restore the insecure configuration.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests