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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 67

Question 660

An IPv6 router already has a connected /64 and needs to reach only a remote host through a specified global next hop. Which static prefix avoids routing the entire remote /64?

  1. A /128 static host route for the remote destination
  2. A /48 route for the enclosing organization
  3. A multicast ff02::1 route for the remote unicast server
  4. A /0 default route for every IPv6 destination

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An IPv6 /128 route matches exactly one 128-bit unicast destination address, making it the appropriate static host route when only one remote host should use the selected global next hop. Configure the destination with /128, specify a reachable compatible next-hop address or outgoing interface and verify the installed route. This avoids directing other addresses in the remote /64 through that next hop. Longest-prefix matching then selects the host route only for its exact destination.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A /48 route covers an entire collection of IPv6 /64 subnets and is far broader than the stated single-server requirement. Installing it toward the specified next hop could divert traffic for many unrelated destinations. A host-specific static prefix is safer when the routing policy applies only to one remote unicast address.

C:

ff02::1 is an IPv6 all-nodes link-local multicast address, not a route for a remote unicast server. Link-local multicast scope is not forwarded normally across routers, so it cannot be used to reach the specified global unicast host. Choose an exact unicast destination prefix and valid next-hop routing instead.

D:

An IPv6 /0 default route covers every destination lacking a more-specific installed route, potentially redirecting large amounts of unrelated traffic. It is appropriate as a general fallback, not when the operator must restrict forwarding to a single remote host. A /128 entry expresses the specified narrow routing scope without changing every unknown destination's next hop.

Question 661

An access switch port is assigned a VLAN that is suspended. What user impact should the operator expect?

  1. DHCP allocates a usable address without Layer 2 delivery
  2. Normal data forwarding for that suspended VLAN is unavailable until it is active
  3. The switch automatically moves every port to any random active VLAN
  4. All hosts become reachable through any multicast address

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A VLAN placed into a suspended or inactive state is unavailable for ordinary switching, so access ports assigned to it cannot deliver their normal user traffic until the VLAN is operational. The port may remain physically linked, which can make the problem look like an IP or application failure. Check show vlan and relevant interface/trunk status, restore the VLAN through an authorized change and then verify client Layer 2 and IP reachability. Do not move endpoints into unrelated VLANs without policy approval.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A DHCP server may have free addresses in a configured scope, but a client cannot complete normal leasing and IP communication through a VLAN whose Layer 2 forwarding is suspended. The presence of a usable address in the server's pool does not restore the switch's VLAN operational state. Check the VLAN status first rather than blaming scope capacity.

C:

Cisco switches do not normally reassign every port from a suspended VLAN to a random active VLAN because that would violate segmentation and create unpredictable security exposure. The configured VLAN association remains meaningful even if forwarding is unavailable. An administrator must deliberately repair or migrate the VLAN and validate permitted endpoint access.

D:

Multicast addresses identify groups of receivers and do not automatically bridge hosts out of a suspended VLAN or bypass Layer 2 forwarding restrictions. Even a valid multicast membership needs working switch forwarding and correct VLAN state. Repair the affected VLAN before troubleshooting multicast membership, routing or application discovery.

Question 662

A routed network has equal prefix/AD OSPF paths but one interface cost changes from 30 to 60. What path selection consequence is likely?

  1. The prefix length automatically becomes longer by 30 bits
  2. The route source automatically changes from OSPF to BGP
  3. DHCP assigns all clients new addresses immediately
  4. The resulting OSPF route metric can increase and a lower-cost path may be preferred

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

OSPF path cost is normally accumulated across participating interfaces, so increasing a contributing interface's explicit cost from 30 to 60 can increase the total metric of routes learned through that path. If another viable OSPF path for the same destination has a lower total cost, it may become preferred after SPF recalculation and convergence. Confirm the interface actually lies on the candidate path, check show ip route and OSPF topology details, and avoid assuming the cost change alters destination prefix length.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF link cost changes route metric, not the subnet mask or prefix length of advertised destinations. Increasing an interface cost from 30 to 60 does not add bits to an IPv4 destination prefix. Routers still compare the same installed network coverage; what may change is which path within that equal-length destination is most attractive.

B:

An OSPF route does not become a BGP route merely because a local interface cost was raised. The routing source is determined by the protocol advertising or installing the prefix. If both equal-prefix candidates remain OSPF paths, OSPF metric comparison can change their preference, but no BGP session or redistribution follows automatically.

C:

DHCP clients renew leases based on their address-lease timers and policy, not on an OSPF interface-cost adjustment between routers. A routing-path change may temporarily affect DHCP server reachability in some designs, but it does not command every host to change its address. Assess routing convergence and connectivity rather than resetting client leases.

Question 663

A switch shows speed mismatches after one side was manually forced to 100 Mb/s and the other left at auto. Which action is appropriate?

  1. Increase the host's maximum TCP receive window to fix port negotiation
  2. Configure a secondary static IPv4 route on the gateway
  3. Change OSPF area IDs between directly connected interfaces
  4. Align compatible port speed and duplex negotiation policies on both peers

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Ethernet peers should use compatible speed and duplex configurations, typically both negotiating according to their supported standards or both using carefully matched settings where the platform permits it. Forcing one side to 100 Mb/s while leaving the other at auto can produce speed fallback or duplex mismatches on some implementations. Compare actual status and error counters at both endpoints, adjust the policies consistently, then confirm link operation and throughput. Do not treat routing or TCP tuning as a fix for PHY disagreement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

TCP receive-window settings control how much application stream data a host can accept before acknowledging it; they do not negotiate physical Ethernet speed or duplex. A port forced to 100 Mb/s can still disagree with an auto-negotiating peer irrespective of TCP buffers. Check PHY-level interface status and negotiation before changing host transport parameters.

B:

A static route influences IP next-hop selection after a link is operational, not speed and duplex negotiation between two directly connected Ethernet devices. Adding backup routes would be irrelevant to a local mismatch and could introduce unexpected forwarding paths. Align compatible PHY settings and confirm the measured link speed before altering routing policy.

C:

OSPF area identifiers affect routing-protocol neighbor relationships, but not the Ethernet transceiver's speed or duplex selection. Deliberately mismatching area IDs would create an additional adjacency problem without repairing the physical negotiation failure. Use switchport and NIC interface commands to inspect both peers' advertised or forced speed settings.

Question 664

A DAI deployment relies on a trusted uplink for ARP handling. Which risk occurs if an attacker can plug into another switch interface incorrectly set trusted?

  1. The interface automatically starts allocating IPv6 global prefixes
  2. Spoofed ARP packets may bypass validation on the mistakenly trusted interface
  3. All legitimate DHCP client messages must be dropped globally
  4. The switch will remove all configured secure MAC addresses

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

DAI ordinarily checks ARP packets from untrusted ports against authorized IP-to-MAC bindings, often derived from DHCP snooping or configured ARP ACLs. If an attacker can connect to a port mistakenly marked trusted, its ARP frames may bypass that validation, enabling forged neighbor mappings or redirection attempts. Reserve trust for verified infrastructure paths, inspect port trust status and validate static-host exceptions. Trust assignments are security boundaries, not simple connectivity tuning preferences.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Dynamic ARP Inspection validates IPv4 ARP assertions and has no function that assigns IPv6 global prefixes to an attached port. IPv6 address allocation and Neighbor Discovery follow different mechanisms and require separate security features. Misplaced trust in an ARP inspection policy is a spoofing risk, not an automatic IPv6 prefix delegation service.

C:

Incorrect DAI trust does not globally force DHCP clients to be dropped; the main immediate problem is that forged IPv4 ARP packets can escape inspection. DHCP snooping uses its own trust configuration and filters DHCP server messages according to roles. The two mechanisms may share binding information, but they are not the same global packet-drop switch.

D:

A trusted DAI port does not inherently erase the switch's secure MAC address table or disable port security. Sticky MAC entries and port-security limits are separate Layer 2 protection mechanisms. The specific exposure is that ARP frames received through a trusted boundary may be forwarded without the normal sender-binding checks.

Question 665

An engineer accidentally produces {hostname:'sw1'} for a REST API expecting strict JSON. Which syntax repair is needed?

  1. Quote the property name and string value with JSON double quotes
  2. Replace all colons with semicolons
  3. Use a single leading equals sign before the property name
  4. Remove the surrounding object braces

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Strict JSON requires object property names to be double-quoted strings and string values to use double quotes as well. The valid representation is {"hostname":"sw1"}, with braces enclosing the object and a colon separating the key from its value. JavaScript object literals may accept different syntax, but REST APIs expecting JSON reject or misinterpret unquoted keys and single-quoted strings. Validate the payload with a JSON parser and send the appropriate content type before troubleshooting the endpoint.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A colon is the correct separator between a JSON member name and its value; semicolons are not replacements in JSON object syntax. Swapping every colon would make the payload invalid even after the strings were quoted. The defect is in JSON quotation rules, so keep key-value separators and repair property and string quoting.

C:

JSON does not use a leading equals sign to assign object members. Its object grammar requires a quoted property name, colon and value enclosed in braces. Adding an equals sign would introduce a new syntax error rather than address the unquoted hostname and single-quoted sw1 in the supplied example.

D:

The surrounding braces denote a JSON object and are required when the API expects a member mapping. Removing them would leave an invalid or structurally different body rather than a properly encoded hostname property. Preserve the object and correct the key and value to double-quoted JSON strings.

Question 666

A relay-enabled SVI handles two client VLANs, each with a distinct IP network. How can the central DHCP server normally choose the correct scope?

  1. Use the relay-provided gateway/giaddr information to identify the originating subnet
  2. Use the Ethernet cable's serial number as the DHCP pool
  3. Use the client's OSPF process ID, which DHCP always includes
  4. Use only the remote DNS MX priority as the address range

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

When a DHCP relay forwards a client request to a central server, it commonly populates the gateway or giaddr field with an address on the originating routed interface. The server can use this information to select a scope associated with that client subnet rather than guessing based on a remote source IP. Configure a suitable helper address on each VLAN SVI, verify reachability to the DHCP server and confirm that both scopes have correct gateway and addressing options. Relay options such as Option 82 may provide additional context where supported.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Ethernet cables may have manufacturer serial numbers, but DHCP servers do not normally use cable serial numbers to choose an IPv4 address pool for relayed clients. The service needs a protocol field identifying the originating subnet or a configured policy. Physical cable inventory and IP lease scope are distinct layers of the design.

C:

Workstations do not inherently run OSPF and DHCP messages do not always carry an OSPF process ID. Even routers with local OSPF configuration select DHCP scopes through address and relay information, not an arbitrary routing-process number supplied by each client. A central server can service multiple VLANs without every endpoint becoming a routing neighbor.

D:

DNS MX record priority orders mail exchanger preference for a domain and has no direct relationship to DHCP scope selection. A DHCP server can advertise DNS resolver addresses in leases, but it does not decide which subnet's pool to use from remote mail-routing priorities. Inspect relay gateway fields and scope configuration instead.

Question 667

A technician finds two floating static routes for the same prefix with different administrative distances 210 and 220. When both are available without a better route, which installs?

  1. Both paths necessarily forward equal amounts even though distances differ
  2. The route with the shorter interface description text
  3. The path at distance 220 because its distance is numerically larger
  4. The static path with distance 210

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For two eligible static routes to the identical destination prefix, Cisco IOS normally installs the lower administrative-distance candidate when no more-preferred route exists. The route configured with distance 210 therefore wins over distance 220, even though both are floating relative to many ordinary dynamic routes. Confirm both next hops resolve and no other lower-distance route is present; if the 210 route fails, the 220 entry can become the installed backup. This behavior is route-source preference, not a cross-protocol metric comparison.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Different administrative distances do not normally create equal-cost forwarding for two static entries to the same prefix. ECMP requires qualifying equal-preference routes, whereas the stated values 210 and 220 explicitly rank the alternatives differently. The higher-distance route can serve as a backup if the lower-distance path becomes ineligible, but both need not share traffic.

B:

An interface description is administrative text and does not participate in IOS administrative-distance selection for static routes. A shorter label might make a configuration easier to read, but it cannot make a distance-220 path beat distance 210. Check the configured route statements, resolved next hops and routing-table installation instead.

C:

Administrative distance is a preference measure where smaller values normally win for competing installed candidates to the same destination prefix. Distance 220 is deliberately less preferred than 210, not more trusted. The 220 route may remain as a floating backup if the lower-distance route disappears, assuming it is still usable.

Question 668

A technician expects a bridge with higher numerical MAC but lower configured bridge priority to be elected root. Which criterion is compared first?

  1. The number of learned IPv4 routes on the switch
  2. The higher numerical MAC regardless of bridge priority
  3. The switch's management DNS hostname alphabetical order
  4. Bridge priority portion of the bridge ID before the MAC tie-break

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Spanning tree elects the lowest bridge ID, with the bridge priority portion taking precedence before the MAC-address tie-break. Thus a switch with a lower valid configured priority can become root even if its numerical MAC is higher than another candidate's. In PVST+/Rapid PVST+ the effective VLAN-specific priority and system ID extension must be considered; verify the actual root ID, not just a planned priority value. Selecting the root deliberately supports a predictable Layer 2 topology.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The number of installed IPv4 routes on a switch is unrelated to election of the Layer 2 spanning-tree root bridge. A device can have extensive routing information and still lose a bridge-ID comparison. Root selection uses spanning-tree identifiers, beginning with bridge priority, and only later relies on the MAC address when needed.

B:

A higher numerical bridge MAC address does not override a lower configured bridge priority. The bridge ID combines priority and MAC-related information, and the lowest valid bridge ID wins; its priority component is evaluated first. MAC only differentiates devices when the effective priority values tie under the relevant VLAN or instance.

C:

DNS hostnames are human-readable management identifiers and do not enter the binary spanning-tree bridge-ID election algorithm. Alphabetical sorting could help organize an inventory, but it is not how root bridges are selected. Verify the configured/effective priority and bridge MAC shown in show spanning-tree instead of comparing switch names.

Question 669

A router has Gi0/0 at 10.31.24.66/30 and an adjacent router interface at 10.31.24.65/30 on the SAME physical link. Both interfaces are up, but no IPv4 neighbor MAC mapping appears. What should be checked first?

  1. Change both interfaces to identical MAC addresses to force neighbor learning
  2. Add a static default route to reach the directly connected 10.31.24.64/30 network
  3. Assign every router on the link a different IPv4 subnet mask
  4. Check ARP exchange and Layer 2 connectivity, since both IPs are valid hosts in the same /30

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The /30 prefix 10.31.24.64/30 contains conventional usable host addresses.65 and.66, so both router interface assignments are valid and share one link. If the interfaces are up but neither resolves the other's MAC, inspect ARP requests and replies, VLAN or switchport placement, cabling, and any security filtering that might block ARP. A successful connected-route lookup still depends on working neighbor resolution before an Ethernet frame can be sent. This tests adjacency troubleshooting, not simply naming the network ID.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Adjacent router interfaces should normally retain distinct MAC addresses; forcing identical identities can create switching ambiguity and is not a requirement for ARP. The IP addresses.65 and.66 are valid separate hosts within the same /30. Diagnose why ARP requests or replies are not delivered rather than introducing duplicate hardware identifiers.

B:

A router with an operational interface in 10.31.24.64/30 already has a connected route for that subnet. A new default route is not needed to reach directly attached neighbor.65 or.66 and would not repair local ARP resolution. Check link/VLAN operation and the neighbor's interface status first.

C:

Both interfaces should use compatible subnet masks on the shared point-to-point LAN; deliberately configuring different masks could create asymmetric on-link decisions. A /30 covers.64 through.67 with usable hosts.65 and.66, so the addressing plan given is valid. The missing neighbor mapping instead suggests Layer 2 reachability or ARP filtering trouble.

Question 670

An ACL must deny all 172.16.32.0/19 sources. Which wildcard is the correct inverse of /19?

  1. 0.0.31.255
  2. 0.0.15.255
  3. 0.0.63.255
  4. 255.255.224.0

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A /19 subnet mask is 255.255.224.0, and an ACL wildcard is its bitwise inverse: 0.0.31.255. That wildcard fixes the first two octets and the high three bits of the third octet while allowing the remaining five third-octet bits and all fourth-octet bits to vary. Applied to 172.16.32.0, it matches the complete 172.16.32.0–172.16.63.255 block. Check whether the ACL should deny only source addresses or also require destination/port conditions before deploying it.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Wildcard 0.0.15.255 corresponds to a /20-style span with only 16 third-octet values. It would cover less source space than the intended /19, potentially leaving part of 172.16.32.0/19 unfiltered. ACL wildcard masks invert subnet masks; they do not simply repeat the prefix length as a decimal increment.

C:

Wildcard 0.0.63.255 represents a wider third-octet variation, comparable to a /18 block when aligned appropriately. It would match addresses outside the specified /19 source range and could block legitimate additional clients. The correct third-octet wildcard for /19 is 31, not 63.

D:

255.255.224.0 is the ordinary subnet mask for /19, not the inverse wildcard format used in Cisco IOS ACL address matching. Placing the subnet mask into a wildcard field would produce a very different set of matched addresses. Subtract each mask octet from 255 to obtain 0.0.31.255.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests