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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 69

Question 680

An OSPF adjacency appears in show ip ospf neighbor as FULL and the interface is on a point-to-point link. What does FULL establish?

  1. All TCP user sessions between LANs have been successfully tested
  2. The switches have disabled all trunk VLAN filtering
  3. Each router has become the active HSRP gateway automatically
  4. Neighbor database synchronization has progressed to full adjacency

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For an OSPF point-to-point neighbor, FULL means the relevant database-exchange and synchronization process has reached a complete adjacency state. Both routers can then participate in link-state information exchange, subject to network stability and protocol rules. This is stronger than mere 2-Way Hello recognition, but it does not guarantee that every route or application is reachable. Review LSDB and routing entries after synchronization if forwarding behavior still fails.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF FULL adjacency says two routing neighbors have completed their database synchronization process; it does not test all TCP sessions, firewalls or applications between remote LANs. Routing could be converged while a server port is blocked or misconfigured. Verify end-to-end services separately after establishing that the OSPF control-plane relationship is healthy.

B:

An OSPF neighbor state does not disable VLAN trunk filtering on Ethernet switches. VLAN allowed lists and native VLAN handling remain configured by Layer 2 interface policy. The router pair may have a FULL routed adjacency while an unrelated trunk still blocks some VLANs, so inspect switching and routing domains independently.

C:

HSRP active-gateway roles are elected or tracked through a first-hop redundancy protocol, not automatically by reaching OSPF FULL adjacency. Point-to-point routing neighbors can synchronize databases without providing a shared virtual gateway to clients. Confirm HSRP group state through its own operational commands if gateway redundancy is also in scope.

Question 681

A workstation is plugged into a switch port configured for voice VLAN 170 and data VLAN 17. Which traffic category normally uses the access VLAN?

  1. The switch's OSPF control-plane packets
  2. The phone's voice frames that are explicitly tagged VLAN 170
  3. Every routed packet transiting the core irrespective of source
  4. The untagged workstation data traffic

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

On a typical Cisco voice-VLAN access port, the attached workstation sends ordinary untagged Ethernet frames and the switch classifies them into the configured data access VLAN 17. A connected IP phone can separately tag voice traffic for VLAN 170 when the endpoint and switch support that design. Verify both VLANs exist and any uplink carries the required tags. The two VLAN roles permit data and voice separation without turning the workstation into a trunk participant.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF control traffic is generated by routing-capable devices for network adjacency and topology exchange, not the ordinary user data assigned to a phone-and-workstation access port. A switch may support OSPF elsewhere on routed interfaces, but that does not define the workstation's access VLAN. VLAN 17 is selected for the endpoint data frames.

B:

Voice frames from a supported IP phone may be explicitly 802.1Q-tagged with VLAN 170 when a separate voice VLAN is configured. Those tagged frames are intentionally separated from ordinary untagged workstation data. The question asks which traffic uses the access VLAN, so the tagged phone traffic belongs to the distinct voice VLAN instead.

C:

Routed packets crossing the network core can belong to many subnets and VLANs and are not all forced into a single user-facing port's access VLAN. Access-port membership is a local Layer 2 classification, not a rule for every packet transiting a router. Only traffic entering this configured user port in the applicable untagged data role uses VLAN 17.

Question 682

A routing engineer suspects the OSPF neighbor uses a different authentication policy, though IP ping works. What must match for authenticated adjacency?

  1. Compatible OSPF authentication type and credentials on the link
  2. Identical DHCP pool names in every connected network
  3. The same NTP hostname as the peer's router ID
  4. An identical user-facing SSID text string on both routers

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

OSPF neighbors using authentication must agree on compatible authentication type, keys and relevant parameters on the shared link before exchanging routing information successfully. IP ping can work because it tests IP reachability without proving OSPF authentication matches. Compare both interfaces' OSPF security settings and ensure keys or key chains, algorithms and timing match as the platform requires. Avoid disabling authentication to force adjacency; fix the policy consistently and check neighbor logs.

Incorrect Answers

B:

DHCP pool names describe local server scopes and are not exchanged as prerequisites during OSPF neighbor formation. Two routers can run OSPF even if neither provides DHCP service. Correcting a pool label would not repair a cryptographic mismatch in OSPF Hello or other protocol packets on the specified link.

C:

NTP can help synchronize clocks for some authentication mechanisms and log correlation, but an NTP server hostname does not need to match a peer's OSPF router ID. Router IDs identify participants in the routing protocol and are different from service DNS names. Inspect the link's actual OSPF authentication method and credentials first.

D:

A user-facing SSID identifies a wireless LAN and has no role in establishing OSPF authentication between routed interfaces. Two routers can have FULL OSPF adjacency without providing any Wi-Fi service. Even where wireless transport carries the link, routing authentication remains separate from the clients' SSID text and radio security configuration.

Question 683

A router serves subnet 10.63.48.0/28 with gateway 10.63.48.1. A new printer needs a static address on the same VLAN. Which candidate avoids the router address and conventional reserved endpoints?

  1. 10.63.48.14 with mask /28
  2. 10.63.48.15 with mask /28
  3. 10.63.48.1 with mask /28
  4. 10.63.48.0 with mask /28

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The /28 block spans 10.63.48.0 through 10.63.48.15, with conventional usable hosts.1 through.14. Because the gateway already occupies.1, the new printer can use.14 as long as it is not assigned elsewhere. Configure the matching /28 mask and the.1 gateway and check the address inventory for conflicts. This is an endpoint allocation decision requiring awareness of existing assignments and reserved network/broadcast values.

Incorrect Answers

B:

In the.0/28 block, 10.63.48.15 is the all-host-bits-one directed broadcast address and is not normally assignable to a printer as unicast. It is close to the end of the usable range but exceeds the last host.14. The router could not reliably identify a single endpoint at this broadcast value.

C:

The address 10.63.48.1 is a valid host value in the subnet but is already used by the router's default-gateway interface. Reassigning it to the printer would create a duplicate IPv4 address conflict and unpredictable ARP behavior. Select an unused host in the remaining.2–.14 range instead.

D:

The low endpoint 10.63.48.0 identifies the conventional /28 network rather than a unique host interface. It is used to describe the subnet in routing tables and address plans. A printer requires a unique usable IP address, so the.0 network identifier is not appropriate here.

Question 684

An IPv4 ACL rule uses a source wildcard of 0.0.0.0 with address 10.3.4.5. What source does that match?

  1. Exactly one IPv4 source host, 10.3.4.5
  2. Only broadcast traffic to 10.3.4.255
  3. All IPv4 sources on the Internet
  4. All hosts in 10.3.4.0/24

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An ACL wildcard bit of zero means the corresponding address bit must match exactly. With wildcard 0.0.0.0, every bit of the source 10.3.4.5 is fixed, so the ACE matches precisely that one IPv4 host. This is functionally equivalent to the host 10.3.4.5 form in many IOS ACL contexts. Verify protocol, destination, action and interface direction separately because the source match alone does not describe the whole security policy.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The supplied source wildcard is not a broadcast-only destination criterion; it fixes the source host address rather than choosing all packets for subnet-directed broadcast.255. Source and destination fields occupy different positions in extended ACL syntax. A zero wildcard cannot turn host 10.3.4.5 into only broadcast traffic.

C:

A wildcard of all zeros is maximally specific, not maximally broad. Matching all IPv4 sources would require an any source or a suitably broad wildcard, subject to the ACL type. The address 10.3.4.5 with 0.0.0.0 selects just that host and cannot represent the entire Internet.

D:

Matching all sources in 10.3.4.0/24 would normally use the 0.0.0.255 wildcard with the aligned subnet address. The given 0.0.0.0 leaves no source bit unconstrained, so it matches only 10.3.4.5. Confusing a subnet mask and wildcard would broaden or narrow the access policy unexpectedly.

Question 685

A network automation client sends JSON to an API expecting application/json, but it omits the Content-Type. What should be fixed?

  1. Put all JSON keys into a DNS MX record
  2. Change the HTTP response to binary Ethernet frames
  3. Switch all requests from HTTPS to Telnet
  4. Supply the supported Content-Type application/json header with valid JSON

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An HTTP request carrying JSON should include the media type expected by the endpoint, commonly Content-Type: application/json, and its body must be valid JSON. The header tells the server how to interpret the serialized representation; omission may cause an unsupported-media-type response or parser failure depending on the API. Verify authentication, method and the schema alongside the header, then inspect the returned status. Do not confuse Content-Type, which describes the sent body, with Accept, which describes desired response formats.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS MX records identify mail exchanger preference for an email domain and cannot supply HTTP request metadata for a controller's JSON API. Inserting JSON property names into DNS would not fix server-side body parsing. The API needs the correct transport header and a valid serialized request body sent over its documented endpoint.

B:

HTTP API responses carry application protocol status, headers and payloads over a network connection; converting them to raw Ethernet frames is not the remedy for a missing request media type. The server can refuse or misinterpret the body when it lacks Content-Type. Keep the supported API protocol and repair its message metadata.

C:

Telnet is an unencrypted interactive terminal protocol, not a secure substitute for HTTPS REST requests. Moving configuration payloads to Telnet would forfeit the endpoint's API semantics and expose credentials or commands. The missing component is an HTTP header indicating JSON, not a reason to abandon authenticated encrypted API transport.

Question 686

A dynamic NAT pool contains eight public IP addresses while 30 inside users attempt simultaneous one-to-one translations without overload. What limitation arises?

  1. NAT automatically expands the configured public pool to 30 addresses
  2. The pool can support only the available simultaneous address bindings without PAT
  3. A single switchport native VLAN will increase pool capacity
  4. The router will generate 30 separate OSPF process IDs

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Dynamic NAT without overload generally assigns one available pool address to one active inside-local source at a time. An eight-address public pool therefore supports at most eight simultaneous distinct address bindings in this simplified case; additional users may fail to obtain a translation until addresses are released or the pool expands. PAT/overload differs because multiple inside sources can share a public IP using distinct transport ports. Confirm timeout behavior, exclusions and translation counters before resizing the pool.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A configured dynamic NAT pool is a finite set of inside-global addresses and does not automatically grow when more inside users request translations. Creating additional public IP addresses would require available allocation and an authorized configuration change. With no overload, attempting 30 simultaneous one-to-one address bindings against eight addresses exceeds the pool capacity.

C:

Native VLAN classification controls handling of untagged frames on an Ethernet trunk and cannot create new public IPv4 addresses for NAT. A correct VLAN design might deliver traffic to the router, but it does not change the address pool's numerical capacity. The limitation follows from eight available translated addresses and disabled overload.

D:

OSPF process IDs identify local routing protocol instances and are not automatically generated one per simultaneous dynamic NAT client. NAT bindings and OSPF route exchange operate at different functions in the router. Creating 30 processes would not supply more public source addresses and could introduce routing complexity without addressing translation capacity.

Question 687

An engineer sees two routes from OSPF but wants to inspect the link-state database rather than only the forwarding table. Which show command addresses that?

  1. show vlan id 1
  2. show ip nat translations
  3. show ip ospf database
  4. show interfaces switchport

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

show ip ospf database displays OSPF link-state information held by the local routing process, rather than only the best installed destinations shown in show ip route. It helps inspect router, network and other LSA types, advertising router IDs and link-state sequence or age values when diagnosing topology and path computation. A route may be absent from the forwarding table despite relevant LSAs being present. Use the proper process and area details to interpret the database correctly.

Incorrect Answers

A:

show vlan id 1 inspects Layer 2 VLAN membership and status, not the OSPF link-state database. It may be useful when a physical or switched adjacency is inaccessible, but the question states routes already exist and requests LSDB information. Use the OSPF database-specific operational command to inspect the underlying advertisements.

B:

show ip nat translations displays address and port translation state rather than OSPF link-state advertisements. NAT translation tables may show actual user traffic traversing the device, but they cannot show the topology information OSPF uses for SPF path calculation. The database query belongs to the OSPF protocol inspection family.

D:

show interfaces switchport reports Layer 2 switchport modes, administrative and operational VLAN settings, not OSPF LSAs. It is useful when trunking problems prevent an OSPF neighbor from coming up through a VLAN. Once the question targets link-state database contents, that switchport command does not provide the required topology records.

Question 688

A loop develops after someone enables global BPDU filtering on a bridge-facing interface. Why is this dangerous?

  1. BPDU filtering forces every edge into an IPv4 isolated subnet
  2. Suppressing BPDUs can hide a physical bridging loop from spanning-tree control
  3. The only effect is to increase switch NTP clock drift
  4. BPDU filter improves all root elections by advertising superior BPDU continuously

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Spanning-tree relies on Bridge Protocol Data Units to discover bridge relationships and block redundant forwarding paths. Aggressive BPDU filtering on an interswitch-facing interface can prevent those control messages from being received or transmitted as expected, making a physical loop harder for STP to detect. Such a loop can produce broadcast storms and rapidly changing MAC tables. Reserve edge-port features for suitable end-host links and verify topology protections before enabling BPDU suppression.

Incorrect Answers

A:

BPDU filtering does not convert Ethernet ports into isolated IPv4 subnets. VLAN membership and routed interfaces define Layer 2 and Layer 3 boundaries, while spanning tree controls redundant bridge paths. The danger in the prompt is a loop becoming invisible to STP, not automatic subnet allocation.

C:

NTP clock drift describes time-synchronization accuracy and is not the only effect of suppressing STP BPDUs. A Layer 2 loop can disrupt entire VLANs, overwhelming links and devices with replicated frames. Accurate clocks help analyze the failure afterward but do not protect against the underlying forwarding loop.

D:

BPDU Filter suppresses supported BPDU processing or transmission; it does not continuously advertise superior bridge IDs to improve root election. If control messages are absent, spanning tree may make unsafe assumptions about the link's role. Configure intentional root placement with bridge priority and appropriate guards instead of disabling the information STP needs.

Question 689

A user VLAN currently uses 192.168.144.96/29 but will need nine ordinary IPv4 host addresses. Without adding another subnet, which smallest conventional prefix length should replace /29 to provide enough hosts?

  1. Keep /29, whose six usable addresses meet nine hosts
  2. Choose /30, which provides two usable addresses
  3. Choose /27, which provides thirty hosts but consumes more space than needed
  4. Choose /28, which provides fourteen usable addresses

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A /28 leaves four host bits, providing sixteen total addresses and fourteen conventional usable hosts after reserving network and broadcast. That is the smallest common IPv4 prefix that can accommodate nine endpoints in one subnet; /29 gives only six and /30 only two. Recalculate the actual network boundary and gateway before migration, because simply changing masks without coordinating all clients and routes can cause overlaps or asymmetric reachability. This is subnet sizing rather than another direct usable-host-count question.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A conventional /29 provides eight total IPv4 addresses, with two reserved endpoints and only six assignable hosts. Nine devices therefore cannot fit in one such subnet without address reuse. Keeping /29 would create capacity failures or conflicts. A larger block is necessary, even though the existing /29 is correctly aligned.

B:

A /30 supplies four total addresses and only two conventional usable hosts, making it smaller than the existing /29. It is often used for two-router point-to-point links, not a nine-device access VLAN. Moving to /30 would make the capacity shortfall more severe rather than solve it.

C:

A /27 provides thirty ordinary usable hosts and would accommodate nine devices, but the requirement is the smallest qualifying subnet. A /27 consumes 32 addresses, twice the 16 in a /28. Although valid in a larger future-growth plan, it is unnecessarily broad for this precise minimum-capacity request.

Question 690

An ACL is meant to block TCP 23 but permit SSH and HTTPS. Which action must follow the Telnet deny?

  1. No action because the implicit deny converts into permit
  2. Change the Telnet rule to permit udp any any eq 23
  3. Disable the router's IPv4 route table
  4. Explicit permit entries for desired traffic before the final implicit deny

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Because ACLs are evaluated top-down with an implicit deny after the last explicit ACE, allowing SSH and HTTPS requires explicit permits for the intended TCP destination ports and authorized source/destination ranges. Put those permits after the Telnet deny but before any broader deny that would match them, then confirm hit counters. If the Telnet rule already excludes TCP 23, other traffic remains governed by later rules; no automatic permit exists. Proper ACE order is as important as selecting the right ports.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Every Cisco IPv4 ACL ends with an implicit deny if no explicit statement matches. It does not automatically change into an implicit permit after a Telnet deny. If desired SSH and HTTPS flows lack permit entries, they will also be rejected. Make the intended allowed services explicit before the final implicit deny is reached.

B:

Changing the Telnet block to permit udp ... eq 23 would allow a different protocol/port combination rather than deny ordinary TCP Telnet. It still would not create valid permits for TCP SSH port 22 and HTTPS port 443. Keep the Telnet deny where required and add correctly scoped allowances for legitimate services.

C:

Disabling the IPv4 routing table would interrupt network forwarding indiscriminately and would not express a selective block on Telnet while allowing SSH and HTTPS. An ACL applies traffic policy to an operational router; routing must continue for permitted flows. Correct rule order and destination ports instead of eliminating the forwarding infrastructure.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests