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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 68

Question 670

An ACL must deny all 172.16.32.0/19 sources. Which wildcard is the correct inverse of /19?

  1. 0.0.31.255
  2. 0.0.15.255
  3. 0.0.63.255
  4. 255.255.224.0

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A /19 subnet mask is 255.255.224.0, and an ACL wildcard is its bitwise inverse: 0.0.31.255. That wildcard fixes the first two octets and the high three bits of the third octet while allowing the remaining five third-octet bits and all fourth-octet bits to vary. Applied to 172.16.32.0, it matches the complete 172.16.32.0–172.16.63.255 block. Check whether the ACL should deny only source addresses or also require destination/port conditions before deploying it.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Wildcard 0.0.15.255 corresponds to a /20-style span with only 16 third-octet values. It would cover less source space than the intended /19, potentially leaving part of 172.16.32.0/19 unfiltered. ACL wildcard masks invert subnet masks; they do not simply repeat the prefix length as a decimal increment.

C:

Wildcard 0.0.63.255 represents a wider third-octet variation, comparable to a /18 block when aligned appropriately. It would match addresses outside the specified /19 source range and could block legitimate additional clients. The correct third-octet wildcard for /19 is 31, not 63.

D:

255.255.224.0 is the ordinary subnet mask for /19, not the inverse wildcard format used in Cisco IOS ACL address matching. Placing the subnet mask into a wildcard field would produce a very different set of matched addresses. Subtract each mask octet from 255 to obtain 0.0.31.255.

Question 671

A transit interface has explicit ip ospf cost 15, but its physical bandwidth is changed. What cost should OSPF use while the override remains?

  1. The explicit interface OSPF cost 15
  2. The last octet of the router's primary IPv4 address
  3. The bridge port priority defined by Rapid PVST+
  4. Always zero since bandwidth has changed

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An explicit ip ospf cost 15 on the interface sets the OSPF cost directly rather than leaving it to the reference-bandwidth divided by interface-bandwidth calculation. A later physical bandwidth adjustment therefore does not automatically change that overridden metric while the command remains active. Verify the effective cost with show ip ospf interface and remove or alter the override deliberately if the routing design should react to bandwidth changes. Keep resulting path costs consistent with the intended redundancy and traffic-engineering plan.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The last octet of a router's IPv4 address identifies part of an interface address, not an OSPF cost formula. OSPF metrics depend on configuration and bandwidth assumptions, and this interface has a direct numeric override. Changing the IP address could affect protocol neighbor connectivity but would not replace the explicit cost with that octet.

C:

Rapid PVST+ port priority helps determine spanning-tree link roles for Layer 2 loop prevention, whereas OSPF cost ranks routed paths in the IP network. A switch may run both protocols in separate contexts, but STP port priority is not used to calculate the interface's OSPF metric. Inspect the explicit ip ospf cost setting instead.

D:

OSPF does not set its metric to zero whenever an interface's bandwidth value changes. A directly configured cost of 15 remains meaningful until removed or changed, subject to supported platform behavior. Zero is not an automatic transient cost and would misrepresent the configured preference. Confirm the actual OSPF interface state and cost values.

Question 672

A trunk link carries VLAN 22 across two switches, but inter-VLAN routing is provided on a separate L3 gateway. Which component forwards frames between hosts in VLAN 22 on different switches?

  1. NAT converts VLAN 22 tags into globally routed addresses
  2. The default gateway must route every frame even when both hosts share VLAN 22
  3. A DNS server forwards the frames across the trunk
  4. The switches bridge tagged VLAN 22 frames across the working interswitch trunk

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The two switches bridge frames in VLAN 22 across an operational 802.1Q trunk that permits and carries that VLAN. They learn source MAC addresses within VLAN 22 and forward known unicast traffic toward the appropriate interface, including the trunk to the remote switch. A separate Layer 3 gateway may serve inter-VLAN routing but is not used for same-VLAN delivery. Confirm VLAN 22 exists, is active and is allowed on both sides of the trunk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

NAT rewrites selected IP address information at a Layer 3 boundary but does not turn an 802.1Q VLAN tag into a publicly routed IP address. The problem describes two hosts already in the same VLAN across a working trunk, which is ordinary Layer 2 bridging. Translation is not needed for their shared broadcast domain.

B:

Hosts that share the same IP subnet and VLAN can exchange unicast frames using local neighbor resolution, without requiring the default gateway to route every frame. Their MAC addresses are learned and forwarded through the switches and trunk as appropriate. The gateway is needed for destinations outside the local subnet, not for ordinary same-VLAN traffic.

C:

DNS provides name resolution and may tell applications an endpoint's IP address, but does not transmit Ethernet frames between switches. Once a destination MAC is learned, switching hardware forwards the tagged VLAN traffic independently of the DNS server. Troubleshooting interswitch reachability should focus on VLAN membership, trunk state and MAC tables.

Question 673

Two endpoints share VLAN 30. Host A uses 172.19.33.120/25, and Host B uses 172.19.33.126/25. A third endpoint at 172.19.33.130/25 sits on a different routed subnet. Which forwarding statement is correct?

  1. A and B can communicate directly at Layer 2; reaching .130 needs a Layer 3 gateway
  2. A must route to B through the default gateway because their last octets differ
  3. All three endpoints occupy one 172.19.33.0/25 broadcast domain
  4. A and B are both directed-broadcast addresses and cannot send unicast frames

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A /25 divides the last octet into.0–.127 and.128–.255. The.120 and.126 hosts are ordinary unicast addresses in the same 172.19.33.0/25 network and can use ARP and switched Ethernet to deliver traffic directly within the VLAN. The.130 address belongs to 172.19.33.128/25 and therefore requires Layer 3 forwarding from Host A's perspective. Verify both hosts use consistent masks and the gateway is reachable when crossing the subnet boundary.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Different unicast host numbers do not require a router when both addresses fall in the same IP prefix and Layer 2 segment. With /25,.120 and.126 share 172.19.33.0/25. They can resolve each other's MAC addresses locally rather than sending all communications to a default gateway.

C:

The.130 device begins the upper 172.19.33.128/25 subnet, whereas A and B are in the lower.0/25 block. A shared VLAN could physically attach both prefixes, but that does not make them one IP subnet. A routing-capable gateway is needed for ordinary cross-subnet communication.

D:

Neither.120 nor.126 is the directed broadcast for 172.19.33.0/25;.127 is the broadcast and.0 is the network identifier. Both given endpoints are valid host addresses. Mistaking near-endpoint unicast addresses for reserved values would cause unnecessary address changes and fail to explain which traffic needs routing.

Question 674

A route to 203.0.113.0/24 points to a valid next hop but its outgoing interface is shut. Which dependency is missing?

  1. An LLDP frame from every Internet router
  2. A matching hostname in the router DNS cache
  3. An operational recursive path to the next hop through a usable egress
  4. A WPA2 preshared key on the serial link

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A static route through an IP next hop must have a usable path for resolving that next hop onto an operational outgoing interface. If the interface required for recursion is administratively shut, the router may be unable to install or use the route, even though the next-hop address is syntactically valid. Check interface up/down status, connected route presence and show ip route recursive resolution. Restore the link or select a reachable alternate rather than assuming configuration syntax guarantees forwarding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

LLDP exchanges neighbor advertisements on directly attached supported Ethernet links; it does not require every Internet router to send a frame before a static route can install. A next-hop IP may be resolved through local ARP or IPv6 Neighbor Discovery and recursive routing. The missing element in the question is an operational egress path, not global LLDP visibility.

B:

Hostname records in a router's DNS cache are not a prerequisite for forwarding to a numerical IP next hop in a configured static route. DNS may help resolve a symbolic configuration input in some contexts, but the given next-hop address is already explicit. A shut outgoing interface cannot be repaired by adding matching DNS names.

D:

WPA2 preshared keys authenticate suitable wireless clients to a WLAN and have no direct connection to IPv4 static-route recursion over a disabled routed interface. A serial or wired link can be down regardless of Wi-Fi security configuration. Investigate the actual next-hop transport rather than changing credentials for an unrelated radio network.

Question 675

A controller responds HTTP 403 to an authenticated account reading an access-controlled object. What does that usually indicate?

  1. The request completed successfully with HTTP 200
  2. The destination host has no IP route at all
  3. The authenticated principal lacks authorization for the requested operation
  4. The user necessarily sent an unauthenticated request

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

HTTP 403 Forbidden typically means the server understood the request but will not authorize the attempted operation. In the scenario, the account is already authenticated, so its role, object ACL, token scopes or resource policy are the likely causes. Inspect the relevant permissions and server audit events without granting broad access as a shortcut. The exact semantics can vary by API, but a valid identity does not guarantee permission to read every object.

Incorrect Answers

A:

HTTP 200 is a success status and means the server processed a request successfully under the relevant API semantics. A response carrying HTTP 403 is a different status, conventionally indicating refusal rather than successful access. Do not treat any completed network exchange as authorization success; check the actual returned code and error detail.

B:

A host with no route to the destination generally cannot establish the application exchange needed to receive an HTTP 403 response. Receiving 403 shows an HTTP server or intermediary processed the request sufficiently to return an authorization-related status. Routing remains important, but the stated failure should be investigated at the access-control layer first.

D:

An unauthenticated request can lead to authentication-related errors such as HTTP 401, although servers and gateways may use statuses differently. The prompt expressly says the account authenticated before receiving 403, so assuming no identity was provided contradicts the evidence. Check authorization scope and resource permissions rather than repeating login blindly.

Question 676

A WAN router should smooth brief output bursts by buffering packets and sending them near an average configured rate. Which QoS mechanism is described?

  1. Cisco Discovery Protocol hello messages
  2. PortFast to bring access links to forwarding quickly
  3. Traffic shaping on the outbound interface
  4. Policing that drops every packet above the instantaneous rate

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Traffic shaping deliberately queues packets that exceed a configured average sending rate and schedules them later to smooth bursts on an outbound link. This matches the requirement to buffer rather than discard brief surges, subject to queue size and latency constraints. Configure the shaping rate and bursts to suit the downstream WAN contract, verify counters and watch for added delay or queue overflow. Shaping cannot preserve unlimited excess traffic if buffers fill; it moderates transmission over time.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cisco Discovery Protocol exchanges adjacent-device information on supported Layer 2 links and does not queue or schedule WAN traffic according to a configured rate. Neighbor discovery can help identify the WAN uplink device, but it cannot smooth bursts of bulk packets. The behavior requested belongs to a QoS queueing mechanism.

B:

PortFast accelerates STP convergence on suitable endpoint-facing switchports and is unrelated to WAN egress packet buffering. It is not a bandwidth control, and inappropriate use on interswitch links can introduce loops. Smoothing traffic requires classifying offered packets and scheduling them for transmission, not changing bridge port transition behavior.

D:

Traffic policing enforces a rate contract by dropping or marking down excess packets instead of necessarily buffering them for delayed transmission. It is appropriate for immediate enforcement at a network boundary, but the question explicitly wants to smooth short bursts through queueing. Choose shaping for controlled outbound delay rather than a policer that discards every burst beyond the configured profile.

Question 677

An ACL on a router is configured but its counters stay at zero although packets should cross that interface. What verification should be done?

  1. Confirm the ACL is applied to the correct interface and packet direction
  2. Change every DNS A record to its numeric name
  3. Disable all VLANs on the switch before retrying
  4. Increase OSPF reference bandwidth globally without checking interfaces

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An ACL definition has no effect on traffic unless it is applied at an appropriate enforcement point, and direction determines whether ingress or egress packets are evaluated. If counters stay at zero, first confirm the named list is attached to the actual interface and direction traversed by the intended flows. Also review ACE ordering, matching source/destination/protocol values and hardware counters if supported. A correct-looking ACL in configuration alone is not evidence that its entries are being exercised.

Incorrect Answers

B:

DNS A records map hostnames to IPv4 addresses and do not establish which router interface evaluates an applied ACL. Changing all records could break application name resolution without causing ACL matches or counter increments. Diagnose packet path, filtering attachment and policy direction rather than editing unrelated name-service data.

C:

Disabling all switching VLANs would interrupt users and could eliminate the traffic required to test the ACL, making diagnosis harder. The symptom is an unused ACL counter, not evidence that every broadcast domain must be shut down. Maintain service and inspect the specific routed interface and access-list attachment.

D:

OSPF reference bandwidth changes calculated routing metrics and could alter forwarding paths throughout a domain; it is not a first-line fix for zero ACL hit counters. Such a global change might even obscure the original packet path. Confirm that matching traffic crosses the correct policy interface before making routing protocol metric changes.

Question 678

An engineer configures Rapid PVST+ root primary on a distribution switch for VLAN 200. What should be confirmed afterward?

  1. No other switch can ever become root after a link failure
  2. Every IPv4 DHCP lease is now centrally reserved
  3. All access ports have been changed to routed ports automatically
  4. The switch is actually elected root for VLAN 200 by inspecting spanning-tree state

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

After configuring Rapid PVST+ root primary for VLAN 200, inspect show spanning-tree vlan 200 to confirm the local switch is actually the root and review its bridge ID and forwarding roles. The command influences bridge priority relative to observed peers, but operational election still depends on valid competing bridge IDs and topology. Validate root placement from neighboring switches where possible; this ensures traffic uses the intended distribution hierarchy rather than relying on a planned configuration alone.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The root primary convenience configuration aims to improve the switch's chance of being elected root, but it is not a perpetual guarantee against future topology or priority changes. Another switch can become root if the intended root fails or better bridge IDs appear. Verify current actual election state instead of assuming the command locks ownership forever.

B:

Spanning-tree root election concerns Layer 2 loop-free forwarding and does not reserve DHCP leases for IPv4 clients. DHCP scopes and reservations are managed by DHCP server configuration, regardless of which distribution switch is root for VLAN 200. The proposed check does not validate the intended STP hierarchy.

C:

Electing a spanning-tree root does not automatically convert access switchports to Layer 3 routed interfaces. Those ports retain their configured Layer 2 modes, VLAN membership and state unless separately changed. A broad access-to-routed conversion would disrupt the VLAN topology instead of verifying the root election result.

Question 679

Host 192.168.73.201/26 has a working default gateway. It sends traffic to 192.168.73.254/26 on the same VLAN and to 192.168.73.130 on a remote subnet. Which first-hop behavior is expected?

  1. ARP directly for .254; send traffic for .130 toward the default gateway
  2. Send both destinations to the gateway because neither ends with .201
  3. Broadcast every packet to .255 so a router chooses the destination
  4. Treat both .254 and .130 as one /26 subnet because all addresses start 192.168.73

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

With /26, Host.201 lies in the.192–.255 range, where.254 is a valid host and.255 is broadcast. It can send to.254 by resolving that peer's MAC address on the local VLAN, without using the default gateway. Address.130 resides in the distinct.128–.191 /26 block, so the host forwards that packet toward its configured gateway. This tests next-hop selection based on the configured subnet mask rather than merely calculating a last usable host.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Endpoints do not need matching final octets to share an IP subnet. Here.201 and.254 belong to the same /26 block, so routing through a gateway for that peer would be unnecessary. The.130 destination is outside the local block and is the one that normally uses the gateway.

C:

The directed broadcast.255 is not a unicast forwarding next hop for every packet in 192.168.73.192/26. Hosts resolve local destination MAC addresses with ARP, while off-subnet traffic goes to the default gateway's MAC. Broadcasting all IP packets would cause incorrect delivery and needless network load.

D:

A shared 192.168.73 third octet does not imply the same subnet when the mask is /26. Address.130 belongs to 192.168.73.128/26, while.201 and.254 are in 192.168.73.192/26. The configured subnet mask, not the textual similarity of the address, determines which packets are on-link.

Question 680

An OSPF adjacency appears in show ip ospf neighbor as FULL and the interface is on a point-to-point link. What does FULL establish?

  1. All TCP user sessions between LANs have been successfully tested
  2. The switches have disabled all trunk VLAN filtering
  3. Each router has become the active HSRP gateway automatically
  4. Neighbor database synchronization has progressed to full adjacency

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For an OSPF point-to-point neighbor, FULL means the relevant database-exchange and synchronization process has reached a complete adjacency state. Both routers can then participate in link-state information exchange, subject to network stability and protocol rules. This is stronger than mere 2-Way Hello recognition, but it does not guarantee that every route or application is reachable. Review LSDB and routing entries after synchronization if forwarding behavior still fails.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF FULL adjacency says two routing neighbors have completed their database synchronization process; it does not test all TCP sessions, firewalls or applications between remote LANs. Routing could be converged while a server port is blocked or misconfigured. Verify end-to-end services separately after establishing that the OSPF control-plane relationship is healthy.

B:

An OSPF neighbor state does not disable VLAN trunk filtering on Ethernet switches. VLAN allowed lists and native VLAN handling remain configured by Layer 2 interface policy. The router pair may have a FULL routed adjacency while an unrelated trunk still blocks some VLANs, so inspect switching and routing domains independently.

C:

HSRP active-gateway roles are elected or tracked through a first-hop redundancy protocol, not automatically by reaching OSPF FULL adjacency. Point-to-point routing neighbors can synchronize databases without providing a shared virtual gateway to clients. Confirm HSRP group state through its own operational commands if gateway redundancy is also in scope.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests