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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 66

Question 650

A switch trusts its uplink for DHCP snooping but a malicious host is connected to a user access port. Why should that host port stay untrusted?

  1. Only trusted ports may carry any Ethernet frames
  2. It must not be permitted to source authoritative DHCP server messages into the VLAN
  3. Trust status determines which OSPF prefix length is used
  4. Untrusted ports always prohibit client DHCPDISCOVER messages

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

DHCP snooping typically designates authorized DHCP server-facing uplinks as trusted while keeping ordinary endpoint-facing access ports untrusted. A malicious host on an untrusted port should not be able to inject DHCPOFFER or DHCPACK messages that impersonate a real server and misconfigure other clients. Confirm which ports lead to the legitimate server, enable snooping on the relevant VLANs and consider rate limits and binding tables. Trusting a user port would bypass an important boundary against rogue DHCP servers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Untrusted DHCP snooping ports can carry ordinary Ethernet user traffic and client requests; being untrusted means the switch applies a server-reply trust policy. If no frames at all were permitted, legitimate users could not reach DHCP or other services. The feature distinguishes DHCP message roles, not blanket physical link authorization.

C:

OSPF prefix length derives from configured IP masks and routing information, not from DHCP snooping port trust. An access switch's DHCP server-message policy operates at Layer 2 and does not change the routing table's destination matching rules. A port may carry clients in an IP subnet regardless of whether it is trusted for DHCP replies.

D:

DHCPDISCOVER is the client's initial broadcast seeking a server, and is normally allowed from untrusted user-facing ports so legitimate address assignment can work. DHCP snooping blocks unauthorized server responses and may rate-limit requests, but it does not inherently prohibit all client discovery messages. Blocking every discover would defeat the intended DHCP service.

Question 651

An administrator moves an IPv4 /32 host static route between interfaces while preserving an unrelated /24 route. What should be removed?

  1. The entire IPv4 routing table including connected routes
  2. Only the obsolete host-route entry matching that /32 destination and old next hop
  3. All NTP servers because a route points elsewhere
  4. The /24 route that must stay available for other hosts

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A static /32 prefix identifies exactly one IPv4 host, and its configured old next hop or exit interface forms the specific route statement to withdraw. Remove that obsolete entry using the matching no ip route ... command, then add or verify the intended replacement path. Confirm the surviving /24 has not changed and that the new host route resolves correctly. Avoid broad deletions: longest-prefix matching means the /32 can override the /24 only for that single destination.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Deleting an entire IPv4 routing table is neither necessary nor a normal safe way to move one static host route. Connected and dynamic routes represent independent reachability that other networks depend upon. The task is to change one specific /32 destination's old next hop while preserving the unrelated /24, so target only the obsolete configuration entry.

C:

NTP servers synchronize network clocks and are not tied to the configured destination of an individual IPv4 static route. Changing a next hop does not require removing time sources, and doing so could degrade log correlation or authentication operations. Retain existing NTP settings and validate the selected routing-table entry instead.

D:

The unrelated /24 route must remain available for other hosts according to the scenario. Deleting it would disrupt reachability for many addresses and would not specifically clean up the old /32 next-hop statement. A host route can be changed independently, with the broader prefix continuing to serve its established destinations.

Question 652

An engineer wants an 802.1Q trunk with native VLAN 999 but currently uses native VLAN 1. Which command sets the intended native classification?

  1. spanning-tree vlan 999 root primary
  2. switchport voice vlan 999
  3. switchport trunk native vlan 999
  4. switchport access vlan 999

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

On a Cisco IOS switchport configured for 802.1Q trunking, switchport trunk native vlan 999 sets VLAN 999 as the native classification for untagged traffic. Both ends of the trunk must agree to avoid VLAN misclassification and associated security or connectivity problems. Check that VLAN 999 exists and the operational trunk is active, and consider a design that tags or isolates native VLAN traffic according to policy. The command changes native classification, not the entire allowed VLAN list.

Incorrect Answers

A:

spanning-tree vlan 999 root primary is a switch-level spanning-tree root election convenience setting, not the native VLAN classification of a trunk. Although both mention VLAN 999, STP bridge role and untagged frame handling are separate functions. Changing bridge priority could alter path selection without fixing an 802.1Q native VLAN mismatch.

B:

switchport voice vlan 999 identifies a voice VLAN on a suitable user access interface and often interacts with telephone discovery. It does not set the native VLAN for an interswitch 802.1Q trunk. Applying a voice VLAN command would not make the trunk interpret untagged frames as VLAN 999 at both ends.

D:

switchport access vlan 999 assigns the untagged data VLAN of an access-mode port and does not configure native VLAN handling for a multi-VLAN trunk. Access and trunk port roles have different operational behavior. An access VLAN command on a trunk interface cannot substitute for the explicit native VLAN setting that the question requests.

Question 653

A network administrator uses the IPv4 subnet containing 192.168.118.12/27. How many conventional host addresses can be assigned?

  1. 30
  2. 62
  3. 32
  4. 31

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An IPv4 /27 leaves five host bits, giving 2^5 = 32 addresses in each conventional subnet. The first address is the network identifier and the last is directed broadcast, leaving 30 ordinary assignable host values. Host 192.168.118.12 belongs to 192.168.118.0/27, whose usual usable range is .1 through .30. This result applies to normal subnet host allocations rather than special /31 point-to-point semantics.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Sixty-two usable addresses correspond to a conventional /26, which has six host bits and 64 total addresses. The supplied mask is /27, so the host portion has one fewer bit and half as many total values. Choosing 62 would overestimate the space available for clients on the specified subnet.

C:

Thirty-two is the total address count for a /27 rather than the conventional usable-host count. Two addresses have special network and directed-broadcast roles in ordinary IPv4 multiaccess allocations, leaving 30. When planning clients, distinguish the full block size from how many distinct hosts can be assigned addresses.

D:

Thirty-one is not the normal count of assignable addresses in a /27. Reserving only one endpoint ignores the network and broadcast address roles under the ordinary subnet model. For this specified host's 192.168.118.0–.31 block, usable values are.1 through.30, exactly 30 addresses.

Question 654

An OSPF link operates at 100 Mb/s and costs more than an alternate 1 Gb/s link after tuning. What influences the default interface cost calculation?

  1. The alphabetical order of Ethernet interface descriptions
  2. The configured root bridge MAC address of VLAN 1
  3. The number of DHCP clients on each link
  4. Configured OSPF reference bandwidth compared with interface bandwidth

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

OSPF commonly computes an interface cost from a configured reference bandwidth divided by the interface bandwidth, with implementation-specific integer behavior and minimum values. Therefore a 100-Mb/s link generally receives a higher cost than a 1-Gb/s link under a suitable reference setting. Verify auto-cost reference-bandwidth, interface bandwidth and any explicitly configured ip ospf cost; manual cost overrides the calculated default. Keep reference-bandwidth policy consistent across the OSPF domain to avoid unpredictable path preferences.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The display order or alphabetical text of an Ethernet interface description is administrative metadata, not an input to OSPF interface cost. An operator may use descriptions to document 100-Mb/s and 1-Gb/s links, but editing the text will not change route metrics. Inspect actual interface bandwidth and OSPF reference settings.

B:

An STP root bridge MAC identifies part of Layer 2 bridge election state and does not determine OSPF link cost on a routed Ethernet path. Layer 2 path changes could affect reachability, but cost calculations are based on OSPF configuration and bandwidth assumptions. The root bridge's address is not a substitute for the protocol metric formula.

C:

DHCP client count affects address-pool consumption and perhaps traffic demand, but not the default OSPF interface cost calculation. A link can have many or few clients while advertising the same configured routing metric. If capacity pressure requires a deliberate traffic-engineering preference, change supported OSPF cost settings rather than relying on dynamic DHCP lease counts.

Question 655

A company uses Terraform for cloud networks and Ansible for IOS switch configuration. Why can these tools be complementary?

  1. Ansible may only query DNS and cannot touch network devices
  2. Terraform manages declarative infrastructure resources while Ansible applies device configuration workflows
  3. Both tools require all devices to use a shared plaintext password forever
  4. Terraform must be used exclusively to send STP BPDUs

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Terraform expresses desired infrastructure resources declaratively and tracks their state, making it useful for provisioning compatible cloud network objects such as virtual networks, gateways and policies. Ansible can then apply configuration workflows on supported IOS switches, using inventory and modules or controlled CLI tasks. These responsibilities complement one another, provided ownership boundaries are clear and changes are idempotent where possible. Protect credentials, use reviews and drift checks, and avoid both tools competing to manage the same configuration fields.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ansible can manage network devices through supported modules, SSH/CLI and APIs; it is not limited to DNS lookups. It is commonly used for templated IOS configuration, validation and operational tasks. The proposal misunderstands Ansible's device automation capability and would unnecessarily rule out one of the tools already selected for that purpose.

C:

Neither Terraform nor Ansible requires one permanently shared plaintext device password. Production workflows should use scoped identities, encrypted secret storage, key-based or supported token authentication, and audited access. A common static credential across all devices would increase compromise blast radius and undermine accountability, so it is the opposite of a good integration pattern.

D:

STP BPDUs are data-link control frames exchanged by switches, not the mandatory output of Terraform infrastructure definitions. Terraform may automate supported resource settings, but it does not replace the switch's spanning-tree protocol implementation or need to transmit BPDUs itself. Assign each automation tool the appropriate management layer rather than confusing control-plane packets with infrastructure provisioning.

Question 656

A static NAT mapping exists but an inbound Internet connection cannot reach the service listening on TCP 8443. Which additional policy check matters?

  1. Whether VLAN 1 is the STP root on a remote branch
  2. Whether the host DNS resolver prefers IPv6
  3. Inbound firewall or ACL permission for the translated destination and service port
  4. Whether the router's CDP advertised platform is correct

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A static NAT entry maps addresses, but it does not necessarily permit unsolicited inbound connections through a firewall or ACL. Verify that the correct inbound policy allows TCP destination port 8443 to the appropriate translated address, taking account of the platform's pre- or post-NAT policy matching behavior. Also confirm the service listens on 8443, return routing is valid and interface NAT roles are correct. Translation and authorization are separate controls, so a mapping alone cannot guarantee reachability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An STP root on a different branch VLAN influences loop-free Layer 2 forwarding there, not the Internet firewall policy for a static translated service on TCP 8443. It could matter in an unrelated local reachability problem, but no evidence points to a remote root election. Focus on inbound packet filtering and correct destination translation first.

B:

An internal host's DNS preference may affect how clients resolve names, but an inbound public TCP connection to a statically translated IPv4 service depends on NAT, routing and security policy. The stated port 8443 is a transport-layer endpoint, not a DNS resolver setting. Check whether the connection reaches the edge before investigating the host's name-resolution preferences.

D:

CDP advertises neighbor device information and platform identity to compatible connected Cisco devices. An incorrect CDP display might complicate inventory, but it does not determine whether firewall rules allow Internet clients to reach a NAT-mapped server. Diagnose access-policy counters and actual TCP connection attempts rather than the router's neighbor description.

Question 657

A management ACL should allow SSH to 192.0.2.10 only from host 198.51.100.23. Which ACE is a correct host-level permit?

  1. permit tcp host 198.51.100.23 host 192.0.2.10 eq 22
  2. permit udp host 198.51.100.23 host 192.0.2.10 eq 22
  3. permit tcp any host 192.0.2.10 eq 22
  4. permit tcp host 192.0.2.10 host 198.51.100.23 eq 22

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

permit tcp host 198.51.100.23 host 192.0.2.10 eq 22 matches TCP sessions from precisely the authorized source to the management target's SSH listening port. The first host identifies the source, the second the destination, and eq 22 applies to destination port 22. Place the ACE before a suitable deny and apply the ACL at the appropriate ingress or VTY-management point. Confirm return traffic and any existing more specific entries do not undermine policy.

Incorrect Answers

B:

SSH normally uses TCP destination port 22, not UDP port 22. Although the source, destination and numeric port look plausible, selecting UDP would not allow the intended SSH handshake. An extended ACL requires correct protocol and port matching, so protocol type is a real part of the security decision, not a cosmetic field.

C:

permit tcp any host 192.0.2.10 eq 22 allows SSH from every source address that reaches the policy point, not only from the authorized management host. It therefore violates the source restriction even though destination and port are correct. Use host 198.51.100.23 instead of any to limit access to the specified administrator.

D:

This ACE places the managed device 192.0.2.10 in the source position and 198.51.100.23 in the destination position, reversing the direction of the requested administrative connection. With a destination-port-22 test, it describes possible outbound traffic from the managed host rather than inbound SSH to it. Source/destination order must match the actual packet flow.

Question 658

A network capture shows an RSTP alternate port in discarding state while a designated port forwards. Which interpretation is correct?

  1. Every RSTP port starts a DHCP lease process before forwarding
  2. The alternate is a standby path excluded from data forwarding to prevent loops
  3. The alternate port is the current root and must forward all frames
  4. The designated port must always discard all received frames

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

RSTP assigns an alternate role to a port offering a redundant path toward the root bridge that is not currently selected for forwarding. Its discarding state prevents an active loop while preserving a potential backup path should the primary root path fail. A designated port on the appropriate segment can forward data because it is the selected path for that segment. Verify root, designated and alternate roles per VLAN or instance before interpreting discarding as a hardware failure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

RSTP port role and state selection does not require each switchport to acquire a DHCP lease. Bridged Ethernet ports can participate in RSTP independently of IP addressing, and many operate with no interface IP at all. A discarding alternate is therefore explained by loop-prevention topology logic, not an unfinished address lease.

C:

An alternate port is not the currently selected root port and does not have to forward every data frame. Its purpose is to preserve a backup rootward path while the loop-free spanning tree uses other roles. Forcing it to forward alongside the active path without protocol coordination could create the loops RSTP is designed to prevent.

D:

A designated port is generally responsible for forwarding on its assigned segment once the appropriate RSTP state and agreement conditions are satisfied. It is incorrect to assume every designated port must discard all frames. The captured combination of a forwarding designated port and discarding alternate is consistent with normal redundant topology protection.

Question 659

A technician wants to confirm that a newly added endpoint is actually receiving frames on its access port. Which component maintains the endpoint-facing physical link?

  1. The access switch interface and the endpoint network interface card
  2. The WAN router at another site and its OSPF area
  3. The remote DNS recursive server and its database
  4. The wireless LAN controller's software image only

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The access switch's physical Ethernet interface and the endpoint NIC establish the local point-to-point data link used to exchange frames. Check link state, speed and duplex negotiation, cabling and interface counters on both ends to confirm receive activity. If the MAC is learned and input counters increment, that supports live endpoint transmission, although mirrored or flooded traffic should still be interpreted carefully. Remote routing and DNS services are not the components maintaining this local physical link.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A WAN router at another location may route traffic after frames leave the access network, but it does not negotiate the endpoint's local Ethernet link with its access-switch port. An OSPF area can govern routed paths between routers, not the electrical or optical health of a workstation uplink. Begin diagnostics at the actual connected switch and NIC.

C:

A recursive DNS server resolves application hostnames and cannot establish the Ethernet physical link or populate the access port's receive counters directly. Name resolution might be tested after confirming IP connectivity, but it is unrelated to seeing frames arrive at a specific switchport. Check link status and packet/byte counters locally.

D:

A wireless LAN controller manages associated AP policies in supported wireless deployments, not the basic cabled Ethernet interface between a local wired endpoint NIC and access switch. Its software image might affect wireless clients, but the question describes an endpoint-facing physical access port. The switch PHY and endpoint network adapter are the relevant link participants.

Question 660

An IPv6 router already has a connected /64 and needs to reach only a remote host through a specified global next hop. Which static prefix avoids routing the entire remote /64?

  1. A /128 static host route for the remote destination
  2. A /48 route for the enclosing organization
  3. A multicast ff02::1 route for the remote unicast server
  4. A /0 default route for every IPv6 destination

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An IPv6 /128 route matches exactly one 128-bit unicast destination address, making it the appropriate static host route when only one remote host should use the selected global next hop. Configure the destination with /128, specify a reachable compatible next-hop address or outgoing interface and verify the installed route. This avoids directing other addresses in the remote /64 through that next hop. Longest-prefix matching then selects the host route only for its exact destination.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A /48 route covers an entire collection of IPv6 /64 subnets and is far broader than the stated single-server requirement. Installing it toward the specified next hop could divert traffic for many unrelated destinations. A host-specific static prefix is safer when the routing policy applies only to one remote unicast address.

C:

ff02::1 is an IPv6 all-nodes link-local multicast address, not a route for a remote unicast server. Link-local multicast scope is not forwarded normally across routers, so it cannot be used to reach the specified global unicast host. Choose an exact unicast destination prefix and valid next-hop routing instead.

D:

An IPv6 /0 default route covers every destination lacking a more-specific installed route, potentially redirecting large amounts of unrelated traffic. It is appropriate as a general fallback, not when the operator must restrict forwarding to a single remote host. A /128 entry expresses the specified narrow routing scope without changing every unknown destination's next hop.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests