Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 65
Question 640
An IPv4 router must have a backup next hop 192.0.2.2 only when primary next hop 192.0.2.1's tracked reachability fails. Which mechanism fits?
- Floating or tracked static routing tied to a meaningful health condition
- A spanning-tree PortFast setting on the default route
- A static ARP mapping to 0.0.0.0 for all LAN hosts
- An SMTP relay server for routing updates
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A floating static route can provide a less-preferred alternate next hop, while object tracking or IP SLA-style reachability checks can condition its installation on the actual health of the primary path. This matches the requirement to use 192.0.2.2 only when the 192.0.2.1 path fails the defined test, not merely when a physical interface is up. Configure meaningful track conditions, appropriate administrative distance and valid return routing, then simulate failure and recovery to verify failover behavior.
Incorrect Answers
B:PortFast accelerates spanning-tree transition for suitable endpoint-facing switchports and has no function in selecting a router's primary or backup IPv4 next hop. It can be dangerous on unintended interswitch links. The requested failover is a Layer 3 route-installation decision based on reachability, so manipulate routing preference and tracking rather than STP edge behavior.
C:A static ARP entry maps an IP neighbor to a link-layer MAC address on a relevant segment; it cannot specify a global backup next hop for all destinations. Mapping arbitrary hosts to 0.0.0.0 is not a valid recovery design. Use route tables and reachability tracking to decide when alternate forwarding should become active.
D:An SMTP relay transports email messages and does not update route preference or monitor an IP next hop's reachability for forwarding. It could send a notification after a link failure if integrated with monitoring, but the data plane would still need a routing mechanism for failover. Select tracked or floating static routes rather than an application mail service.
Question 641
A switch has a blocked redundant path in VLAN 100, and its root port link fails. How should Rapid PVST+ support continuity?
- Recompute roles and allow a suitable alternate path to take the forwarding role
- Keep every formerly blocked link discarded forever
- Enable both redundant links as unrestricted forwarding permanently
- Convert VLAN 100 to an IPv6 link-local address
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Rapid PVST+ uses rapid spanning-tree port roles and synchronization to maintain a loop-free path while permitting faster convergence than classic timers in suitable topologies. When the active root port fails, a suitable alternate can transition to the new root-path role and eventually forward VLAN 100 traffic after the protocol confirms the topology. Verify alternate port health, bridge priorities and RSTP role/state output. Fast transition is conditional on the topology and implementation, not a license to forward through both redundant paths indiscriminately.
Incorrect Answers
B:A previously blocked alternate is intentionally available as a redundant path and should not remain discarded forever if the active root path fails. RSTP can promote a suitable alternate when the topology changes and convergence criteria are satisfied. Keeping it permanently unusable would remove the resilience the redundant physical design was built to provide.
C:Allowing both formerly redundant physical paths to forward without a loop-control mechanism can create Layer 2 loops, broadcast storms and MAC-table instability. Rapid PVST+ selects appropriate roles and states for a loop-free tree, not permanent unregulated forwarding on every link. Check the active topology and designated/root roles before deliberately changing which paths carry traffic.
D:Converting a VLAN identifier into an IPv6 link-local address makes no protocol sense: VLAN 100 defines a Layer 2 broadcast domain, whereas fe80::/10 addresses identify IPv6 interfaces on a local link. Such an addressing change cannot replace failed STP connectivity. The proper response is spanning-tree role transition over a viable redundant physical connection.
Question 642
A router should run OSPF area 0 on Gi0/1 without matching the interface through any broad wildcard statements. Which interface command is suitable?
- spanning-tree vlan 23 priority 0 under Gi0/1
- ip dhcp pool area-0 under Gi0/1
- ipv6 address area 0 under Gi0/1
- ip ospf 23 area 0 under Gi0/1
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:On supported Cisco IOS, interface command ip ospf 23 area 0 enables OSPFv2 process 23 on Gi0/1 in area 0 without requiring a broad network wildcard in router mode. The process number is locally significant, but neighbor area, network type, timers, authentication and subnet parameters must be compatible. Confirm the interface is up, the OSPF process exists or is instantiated appropriately and show ip ospf interface reports area 0. This method targets the specified interface directly.
Incorrect Answers
A:spanning-tree vlan 23 priority 0 relates to bridge priority for VLAN 23, not OSPF area participation on a routed router interface. Its syntax also belongs in appropriate switch configuration rather than identifying an OSPF process for Gi0/1. STP prevents Layer 2 loops; the problem requests a Layer 3 routing-protocol interface setting.
B:ip dhcp pool creates a configuration context for an IOS DHCP server, not for activating OSPFv2 on one interface. A DHCP pool might address hosts on a routed LAN, but it neither sends OSPF Hellos nor binds an OSPF area to Gi0/1. Do not confuse the shared word area with a valid OSPF command.
C:ipv6 address assigns an IPv6 interface address or prefix and cannot express an IPv4 OSPF process and area with the shown words. OSPFv2 is enabled by routing-process configuration or a supported interface command. IPv6 addressing would be a separate function and does not activate the requested OSPFv2 adjacency by itself.
Question 643
An optical link shows receive power below the transceiver's threshold, yet Ethernet configuration is correct. Which layer should be investigated?
- OSPF administrative distance between unrelated routes
- Fiber path attenuation, connectors and optical launch/receive power
- JSON indentation in controller API responses
- The default DHCP lease duration for clients
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Received optical power below the module's supported threshold indicates a physical-layer light budget or path problem. Check fiber attenuation, span length, dirty or misaligned connectors, bend radius, patch polarity, incompatible optics and the transmitting side's launch power. Compare both endpoints' diagnostic optical power and alarm ranges before altering VLANs or routing. An interface can have correct Ethernet configuration yet lose packets or fail link establishment because the receiver lacks sufficient usable signal.
Incorrect Answers
A:Administrative distance is a route-source preference used after there is a usable Layer 3 path, not a physical optical-receiver measurement. Changing OSPF distance for unrelated routes cannot increase light arriving at the transceiver. Low received power can keep an Ethernet link down before IP routing or OSPF adjacency operates, so begin with the optical path.
C:JSON indentation affects readability or serialization syntax in a management API, not the measured optical power reaching an SFP receiver. Even a malformed controller response cannot physically attenuate light through fiber. Check DOM telemetry for transceiver power if supplied, but use optical diagnostics and cable testing to investigate the underlying low receive level.
D:DHCP lease time controls how long clients may use assigned addresses and does not modify laser output, fiber loss or receiver sensitivity. An optical link with low power may prevent those clients from reaching DHCP services, but that is a consequence rather than a root cause. Repair the physical signal budget first.
Question 644
An extended ACL must permit only ICMP echo requests from 192.0.2.0/24 to host 198.51.100.9. Which protocol-specific match is appropriate?
- permit tcp 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 host 198.51.100.9 eq 443
- deny icmp 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 host 198.51.100.9 echo
- permit ip any any
- permit icmp 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 host 198.51.100.9 echo
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:permit icmp 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 host 198.51.100.9 echo matches IPv4 ICMP echo requests sourced from 192.0.2.0/24 and addressed to exactly 198.51.100.9. The wildcard 0.0.0.255 varies only the final source octet, and the echo qualifier selects the request message rather than all ICMP types. Apply the ACL to the correct interface and direction, consider reply traffic and implicit deny, then test permitted and denied cases with counters.
Incorrect Answers
A:The TCP permit matches HTTPS-like traffic to destination port 443, not ICMP echo requests. ICMP is a separate IPv4 protocol with message types rather than TCP port numbers. An otherwise correctly scoped source wildcard and destination host cannot compensate for selecting the wrong transport protocol; use an extended ICMP ACE specifying echo.
B:deny icmp ... echo has the requested protocol, source subnet and destination host but expressly blocks echo-request packets rather than allowing them. This could be correct in a policy designed to prohibit ping testing, but it contradicts the requested permit. ACLs use first-match processing and an implicit deny, so a deny at that position is not equivalent to a permit.
C:permit ip any any would allow every IPv4 source, destination and higher-layer protocol, far broader than the one-subnet-to-one-host ICMP echo policy. A broad rule also risks overriding later restrictions if placed early in the ACL. Build an explicitly scoped extended ACE and only add other permits when required by the intended traffic policy.
Question 645
An API endpoint interprets PUT as full resource replacement. What should a client avoid?
- Using an authorized HTTPS connection to the endpoint
- Sending a partial body that unintentionally drops unspecified fields
- Including all required fields in a complete representation
- Validating the current resource's ETag before concurrent modification
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:When an API defines PUT as full replacement, a body containing only the one field being changed may overwrite or clear omitted fields. A client should retrieve the current representation, preserve required properties and send a complete, schema-valid replacement, or use a documented PATCH operation for partial updates. Review server-specific PUT behavior and use conditional requests or version tokens where available. Validate the resulting resource afterward rather than assuming missing fields remain unchanged.
Incorrect Answers
A:Using authorized HTTPS is appropriate protection for an API operation because transport security and authentication help safeguard credentials and data. The fact that PUT may replace a resource does not make HTTPS itself something to avoid; the risk is payload completeness and concurrency. Preserve authenticated encryption while ensuring the request body's representation matches the documented replacement semantics.
C:A full resource representation with all required fields is usually the intended input for replacement-style PUT semantics. Supplying it helps prevent accidental loss of properties not included in a narrow update payload. Values still need validation and authorization, but completeness is a safeguard rather than the thing to avoid in the question.
D:Checking the current ETag and using appropriate conditional request headers can guard against overwriting changes made by another client. Such optimistic-concurrency protection is often desirable for PUT replacement operations. It does not remove the need to include all required fields in the payload, but it is not the problematic action identified by the scenario.
Question 646
A security audit finds SSH login is protected, but VTY lines still allow any local user to enter without command authorization. Which concept should be evaluated?
- Assign the same management IP to all routers to centralize login
- AAA authorization for command access after successful authentication
- Increase switch trunk allowed VLANs to include all numbers
- Disable SSH encryption to make command permissions visible
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:AAA separates authentication (who the user is) from authorization (which commands or services that authenticated identity may access) and accounting (what was performed). If users can log in by SSH but should not all receive unrestricted command privileges, evaluate per-user or role-based authorization through a supported local or TACACS+/RADIUS-based policy as appropriate. Test privilege levels, command authorization behavior and fallback safely; authentication success alone is not permission for every configuration operation.
Incorrect Answers
A:Assigning every router the same management IP would produce address conflicts or require an unusual translation design, not centralized command authorization. Even when authentication uses a common AAA server, each device should normally retain a suitable unique reachable management address. Permission to execute commands is decided by identity and authorization policy rather than address duplication.
C:Allowing all VLANs on a switch trunk changes Layer 2 segmentation and could increase exposure between network segments. It does not restrict which configuration commands authenticated users can execute on VTY sessions. The underlying gap concerns administrator privileges after login, not trunk member VLAN lists or interswitch connectivity.
D:Turning off SSH encryption would expose administrative credentials or commands to interception and would not create command-level authorization. Visibility for security review comes from AAA accounting and device audit logging, not from transmitting management sessions in plaintext. Retain encrypted remote access while enforcing least-privilege access to commands.
Question 647
Two equal-cost OSPF next hops had carried traffic to 192.168.87.0/24 using ECMP. One adjacency now fails and its route is withdrawn, while the other cost-25 route remains healthy. What is the expected forwarding result?
- Keep sending half the packets to the failed next hop permanently
- Immediately discard all packets because ECMP can never use a single surviving path
- Choose the path with the highest OSPF router ID even if its adjacency failed
- Remove the unusable ECMP member and continue forwarding through the surviving route
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:When one ECMP next hop fails, OSPF can withdraw that adjacency's candidate and recalculate or update the installed routes while retaining the healthy equal-prefix alternative. After convergence, the forwarding table should use the surviving cost-25 next hop for 192.168.87.0/24 rather than continue selecting the dead member. Verify neighbor failure detection, route/FIB updates and per-flow hashing after the event. This tests resilience after a member withdrawal, not the initial selection of equal-cost paths.
Incorrect Answers
A:ECMP members must remain valid forwarding candidates. Once the router detects that a next-hop adjacency failed and updates its forwarding state, it should stop selecting that dead path rather than permanently losing half the traffic. During convergence some packets may be disrupted, but the stable outcome excludes the withdrawn next hop.
B:Equal-cost multipath is optional parallel forwarding over multiple valid paths, not a requirement that at least two routes always remain. If one path fails while another matching route remains usable, the router can forward through the surviving next hop after convergence. Discarding every packet would defeat route redundancy and ignore the valid route still installed.
C:OSPF router IDs help identify neighbors and influence some protocol operations, but they do not override the fact that a failed adjacency is no longer a usable next hop. Forwarding through a dead neighbor just because its router ID is higher would create a black hole. The remaining valid route, not an ID ordering rule, should carry traffic.
Question 648
A router has subinterfaces for VLANs 30 and 40, but all VLAN 40 traffic leaves the switch untagged as native. What router subinterface characteristic must match?
- A static ARP cache mapping every user to 0.0.0.0
- A lower OSPF cost only on VLAN 40
- A compatible 802.1Q native VLAN setting where the design expects untagged traffic
- A second identical router MAC address on the other subinterface
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:If the connected switch sends VLAN 40 frames untagged as the 802.1Q native VLAN, the corresponding router subinterface must interpret that native VLAN consistently where supported and intended. A configuration such as encapsulation dot1Q 40 native identifies untagged ingress traffic for VLAN 40 on a router-on-a-stick design. Check the switch's native VLAN, allowed VLANs and router subinterface encapsulations to avoid misdelivery. Some designs deliberately tag all VLANs, so apply native behavior only when the stated topology requires it.
Incorrect Answers
A:Creating static ARP entries to 0.0.0.0 for every VLAN user would not establish correct 802.1Q tagging behavior and could break neighbor resolution. ARP maps valid IPv4 neighbors to Ethernet MAC addresses; it does not declare which VLAN is native on an interswitch or router trunk. Investigate link encapsulation consistency instead.
B:Changing OSPF cost can influence Layer 3 path preference once the VLAN subinterface is working, but does not tell the router whether untagged frames belong to VLAN 40. Frames can be misclassified or lost before routing decisions matter. Match the trunk's native tagging convention on both endpoints rather than tuning OSPF to compensate for an Ethernet encapsulation mismatch.
D:Router subinterfaces sharing one physical Ethernet port already use the underlying hardware MAC in suitable designs; forcing duplicate unrelated router identities is not the fix for untagged VLAN traffic. The difference between VLANs 30 and 40 is represented by 802.1Q tags or native classification, not arbitrary MAC cloning. Correct the encapsulation settings on both peers.
Question 649
A network technician observes output drops on a full-duplex uplink while CRC and alignment errors stay at zero. Which problem is more plausible?
- Egress congestion or buffering pressure rather than cable corruption
- A wrong copper pair order always causing CRC errors
- An incorrect DNS suffix automatically dropping Ethernet frames
- A failed IPv6 address autoconfiguration with no traffic
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Output drops count frames or packets the device could not successfully queue or transmit, which commonly points toward egress congestion, queue limits or buffering pressure. With zero CRC and alignment errors on a full-duplex link, there is less direct evidence of corrupted physical signaling. Inspect interface utilization, queue depth, QoS drops, microbursts and buffer counters before replacing cables. Physical defects are possible, but the specific counters make a traffic-handling limitation the more plausible starting point.
Incorrect Answers
B:A wrong copper pair order or damaged cable may cause link negotiation problems and physical frame errors, but the question explicitly reports no CRC or alignment errors. A cabling defect does not automatically explain pure output queue drops under load. Inspect physical statistics if other symptoms appear, while first investigating egress utilization and buffer exhaustion.
C:A DNS search suffix changes how an endpoint expands unqualified hostnames and cannot directly cause a switch's egress queue to discard Ethernet frames. It may affect application reachability after packets traverse the network, but queue-drop counters measure forwarding pressure inside the device. Changing DNS settings would not reduce congestion on the uplink.
D:Failed IPv6 address autoconfiguration can prevent IPv6 application communication, but the presence of output drops indicates frames or packets are already being processed and discarded on egress. The statement with no traffic conflicts with measured output-drop activity. Review congestion and QoS counters rather than attributing this symptom to lack of IPv6 addressing.
Question 650
A switch trusts its uplink for DHCP snooping but a malicious host is connected to a user access port. Why should that host port stay untrusted?
- Only trusted ports may carry any Ethernet frames
- It must not be permitted to source authoritative DHCP server messages into the VLAN
- Trust status determines which OSPF prefix length is used
- Untrusted ports always prohibit client DHCPDISCOVER messages
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:DHCP snooping typically designates authorized DHCP server-facing uplinks as trusted while keeping ordinary endpoint-facing access ports untrusted. A malicious host on an untrusted port should not be able to inject DHCPOFFER or DHCPACK messages that impersonate a real server and misconfigure other clients. Confirm which ports lead to the legitimate server, enable snooping on the relevant VLANs and consider rate limits and binding tables. Trusting a user port would bypass an important boundary against rogue DHCP servers.
Incorrect Answers
A:Untrusted DHCP snooping ports can carry ordinary Ethernet user traffic and client requests; being untrusted means the switch applies a server-reply trust policy. If no frames at all were permitted, legitimate users could not reach DHCP or other services. The feature distinguishes DHCP message roles, not blanket physical link authorization.
C:OSPF prefix length derives from configured IP masks and routing information, not from DHCP snooping port trust. An access switch's DHCP server-message policy operates at Layer 2 and does not change the routing table's destination matching rules. A port may carry clients in an IP subnet regardless of whether it is trusted for DHCP replies.
D:DHCPDISCOVER is the client's initial broadcast seeking a server, and is normally allowed from untrusted user-facing ports so legitimate address assignment can work. DHCP snooping blocks unauthorized server responses and may rate-limit requests, but it does not inherently prohibit all client discovery messages. Blocking every discover would defeat the intended DHCP service.