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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 64

Question 630

An engineer must insert a permit ACE before an existing deny in a named IPv4 ACL. What feature supports this without deleting the entire list?

  1. Reboot clients until ACL rules randomly reorder
  2. Assign the router's default gateway to the user's MAC address
  3. Reconfigure the OSPF router ID to a lower number
  4. Use sequence numbers to insert the ACE at the desired match position

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Cisco named IPv4 ACLs can use sequence numbers to place a new permit ACE before an existing deny rather than deleting and rebuilding the entire list. Choose an available sequence value that falls between the relevant entries, then confirm with show ip access-lists that permit precedes the deny. Because ACLs are evaluated top-down on first match, placement is critical; if numbering gaps are exhausted, use the platform's resequence capability to create room safely.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ACL evaluation follows explicit rule order; rebooting clients cannot randomly reorder access-control entries in a reliable or appropriate way. Depending on the device, a client reboot might refresh a session but does not insert a new ACE before an existing deny. The operator must edit the named ACL itself using supported line ordering.

B:

A default gateway is a Layer 3 next-hop IP address and cannot meaningfully be assigned to a user's MAC address as an ACL sequence rule. MAC-to-IP neighbor mapping is separate from IPv4 policy ACE order. This proposed change would not affect which permit or deny statement is evaluated first for matching packets.

C:

OSPF router ID identifies a routing process participant and can influence OSPF elections, not the ordering of named IPv4 ACL entries. Changing it risks routing protocol disruption without adding the requested permit. Policy matching will continue to follow ACL entry sequence until the ACL itself is edited.

Question 631

An engineer configures network 10.24.8.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 under router ospf. Which interface addresses are eligible to run OSPF?

  1. Only a route whose destination network ID equals 10.24.8.0/32
  2. Only interfaces using a DHCP-assigned 10.24.8.255 broadcast address
  3. Interfaces whose IPv4 addresses match 10.24.8.0 through 10.24.8.255
  4. Every subnet beginning with 10 in the entire enterprise

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The IOS OSPF network 10.24.8.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 statement matches local interface IPv4 addresses in the complete 10.24.8.0–10.24.8.255 range and enables those matching interfaces in area 0, subject to operational conditions. The wildcard bits that are ones are ignored in matching, equivalent here to a /24 selection. Verify the actual interface addresses and OSPF process status; the statement does not automatically route every destination elsewhere in the enterprise.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The OSPF network command under router configuration identifies local interface addresses to activate for the process, not solely a route whose destination equals the first address of a subnet. Its wildcard allows a range of matched interfaces. Interpreting it as a /32 route would omit interfaces on the intended 10.24.8.0/24 LAN.

B:

The all-host-bits-one address 10.24.8.255 is normally the directed broadcast of this /24, not an IPv4 address a DHCP server should lease to an interface. OSPF wildcard matching does not require DHCP-assigned addresses or this specific broadcast address. It selects local interfaces by the configured network/wildcard range and associates them with area 0.

D:

A wildcard of 0.0.0.255 constrains the first three IPv4 octets to 10.24.8, so it cannot match every subnet beginning with 10. A much broader wildcard would be needed for 10/8 selection. Enabling OSPF on more interfaces than intended can create unwanted adjacencies, making precise matching a useful design safeguard.

Question 632

A router-on-a-stick trunk carries VLANs 60 and 70. Which IOS interface command identifies the VLAN for subinterface Gi0/0.60?

  1. switchport access vlan 60 under Gi0/0.60
  2. ip helper-address 60.0.0.1 under Gi0/0.60
  3. router ospf 60 under the subinterface
  4. encapsulation dot1Q 60

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Under router subinterface Gi0/0.60, encapsulation dot1Q 60 tells IOS to handle traffic tagged with VLAN ID 60 on the shared physical Ethernet link. The parent physical port and connected switch should form a compatible 802.1Q trunk carrying VLANs 60 and 70; each subinterface also needs an appropriate IP address for routing. Check allowed VLANs and native-tag handling on the peer, since encapsulation alone does not make an unavailable trunk operational.

Incorrect Answers

A:

switchport access vlan 60 applies to a Layer 2 access switchport rather than a router's routed 802.1Q subinterface. Router-on-a-stick sends tagged traffic through subinterfaces of one physical router link. To bind Gi0/0.60 to VLAN 60, configure an encapsulation statement appropriate to the subinterface, not a switching access-VLAN command.

B:

ip helper-address relays certain client broadcasts, including DHCP messages, toward a specified service destination and does not declare an 802.1Q VLAN tag. A helper may be useful on a routed VLAN gateway if DHCP servers sit elsewhere, but it cannot map Gi0/0.60 to tag 60. Routing and service relay are separate configuration functions.

C:

router ospf enters routing process configuration rather than assigning 802.1Q encapsulation to the currently selected subinterface. OSPF could later advertise the connected VLAN 60 prefix, but only once the subinterface is correctly attached and addressed. It does not tag incoming or outgoing Ethernet frames with the correct VLAN identifier.

Question 633

A client advertises a hidden SSID network as secure solely because the SSID is not in beacon advertisements. What is missing?

  1. A lower AP radio transmit power by itself
  2. A second hidden SSID under an unrelated VLAN name
  3. Actual authentication and encryption controls such as a supported WPA2/WPA3 configuration
  4. Setting every DNS record's TTL to one second

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Suppressing SSID broadcasting is not a strong wireless security boundary because the network name may still appear in other 802.11 exchanges. Real client protection needs suitable authentication and encrypted data handling, such as properly configured WPA2 or WPA3 modes with appropriate credentials or enterprise identity. Select cipher and key management suited to the environment, confirm client support and avoid insecure fallback settings. SSID visibility changes discovery convenience, not confidentiality or authorization.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Lowering AP transmit power can influence coverage boundaries, interference and roaming behavior but does not encrypt wireless frames or establish cryptographic client authentication. A hidden SSID remains detectable through other management and association exchanges. RF tuning is useful for capacity and coverage, yet it is not a replacement for WPA2/WPA3 security controls.

B:

Hiding another SSID under a different VLAN name would not supply encryption or authentication for the original wireless network. An SSID is a WLAN identifier, and suppressing beacon advertisement is not a meaningful protection against capable wireless analysis. Multiple hidden names can add management overhead without protecting data in transit.

D:

DNS time-to-live affects how long resolvers cache name records, not WLAN authentication or radio-frame encryption. Shortening every DNS TTL can increase lookup traffic while leaving wireless packets exposed if security is absent. Investigate supported WLAN authentication and encryption policies rather than a completely separate application name-resolution parameter.

Question 634

An OSPF router computing shortest paths considers four candidate paths to 10.51.1.0/24, all with the same destination prefix and route-source preference. Their consecutive link costs are path A: 10+20+8, B: 20+10+5, C: 7+9+8, and D: 4+5+6. Which candidate has the smallest cumulative OSPF cost?

  1. Path A, whose three link costs add to 38
  2. Path B, whose three link costs add to 35
  3. Path C, whose three link costs add to 24
  4. Path D, whose three link costs add to 15

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Path D's cumulative OSPF cost is 4 + 5 + 6 = 15, less than A's 38, B's 35 and C's 24. With identical destination prefix and administrative-distance preference, the lowest eligible total OSPF path cost is normally selected, assuming all listed paths are operational and no separate policy alters forwarding. This question requires combining the link costs, not simply comparing four already supplied end-to-end metrics or unrelated route-source distances.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Path A's total OSPF cost is 10 + 20 + 8 = 38. Individual low-cost segments do not override the additive total cost used to compare OSPF paths to the same destination. It is a valid candidate if reachability and other conditions hold, but the cumulative value exceeds path D's 15, so A is not the shortest-cost choice in this scenario.

B:

Path B totals 20 + 10 + 5 = 35, which is smaller than A's 38 but still larger than the best option. Because all four candidates advertise the same prefix and share route-source preference, their summed OSPF interface costs are the relevant comparison. Selecting B based only on its final cost-5 link would ignore the earlier path components.

C:

Path C totals 7 + 9 + 8 = 24. That is lower than the A and B totals, so C could be useful if D became unavailable, but it is not the minimum across all four. OSPF computes path cost as the sum of the links along the path rather than taking just the lowest individual link or an average.

Question 635

An AI assistant summarizes an outage but invents a nonexistent VLAN change. What quality safeguard addresses this?

  1. Require cited, verifiable event evidence from authorized logs and configuration diffs
  2. Increase generation temperature to make the description more imaginative
  3. Apply a longer DNS resolver timeout for all clients
  4. Hide all network events from the review interface

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A generative assistant can produce a plausible but fabricated change narrative, so an outage report must be grounded in approved operational evidence. Require each asserted VLAN modification to trace back to a timestamped configuration diff, change ticket or trusted event log with device identity and sufficient permissions. Flag unsupported claims for human review instead of silently treating model text as a fact. This also protects against misleading logs or prompt-injected instructions; citations must resolve to actual records.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A higher generation temperature generally encourages more varied model outputs, not stronger factual grounding. For an already invented VLAN change, more randomness could increase inconsistency or fabricated detail. The safeguard is verified log retrieval, source attribution and reviewer validation, rather than adjusting creativity to make a network incident summary more imaginative.

C:

DNS timeout controls how long a client or resolver waits for name-resolution responses, not how a language model validates switch configuration history. Changing DNS polling or timeout values may affect service availability, but cannot prove whether a VLAN was changed. The required evidence is from authorized change and telemetry systems covering the outage.

D:

Concealing all network events from the review interface would prevent an operator from checking a generated claim against reality and could mask genuine incidents. Controlled access and redaction may be needed for sensitive logs, but relevant verified evidence should remain available to authorized reviewers. The aim is traceability, not removing the source material.

Question 636

An edge device should limit excessive bulk traffic to a configured rate and discard or remark excess immediately. Which QoS action fits?

  1. Converting packets into local DNS records
  2. Traffic policing with an enforced rate contract
  3. Increasing OSPF router priority without QoS policy
  4. Traffic shaping that buffers every excess packet for later transmission

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Traffic policing measures traffic against a configured rate or token-bucket contract and can immediately discard or mark down packets that exceed the allowed profile. It suits an edge rule requiring enforcement rather than deliberate buffering of excess traffic. Configure the classification, committed information rate and burst parameters carefully; aggressive settings can harm legitimate bursts. Validate counters for conforming and exceeding traffic and confirm policy placement on the intended direction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS maps names to resource records and is not a traffic-rate enforcement mechanism. Converting packets into DNS information would neither measure a traffic contract nor drop or remark packets that exceed a committed rate. The requirement belongs to the QoS policy attached to the relevant interface or classification, not name service configuration.

C:

OSPF router priority influences designated-router elections on eligible multiaccess networks, not the rate at which a device permits bulk traffic. Increasing priority will not mark, delay or drop excess packets according to bandwidth policy. Use QoS class matching and police actions for traffic shaping requirements, not routing-protocol elections.

D:

Shaping normally buffers excess packets and schedules them later to smooth the offered rate, which is not the stated immediate discard-or-remark behavior. It can be useful on outbound links when smoothing bursts helps avoid downstream congestion, but it introduces queueing delay. Policing is the more direct action when traffic beyond a rate must be promptly marked down or dropped.

Question 637

A port-security access interface becomes err-disabled after a shutdown-mode violation. Which operational consequence follows until recovery?

  1. The port automatically changes to unrestricted trunk mode
  2. The access interface becomes the STP root bridge
  3. The port stops forwarding until it is recovered according to device policy
  4. The port remains forwarding all traffic with only a counter increment

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

In port-security shutdown violation mode, detecting a prohibited source MAC commonly places the interface into an error-disabled state, stopping ordinary forwarding. Restore service only after identifying the offending MAC, correcting the endpoint/security policy and performing supported recovery such as shutdown followed by no shutdown, or a configured error-disable recovery timer. Check violation counters and secure-MAC limits before reenabling; automatic unrestricted forwarding would undermine the protection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A shutdown-mode port-security violation does not automatically transform an access interface into an unrestricted trunk. Such behavior would defeat the security policy and could expose other VLANs. The actual response is to disable forwarding on the violating port until recovery action occurs according to the device's configured error-disable policy.

B:

Spanning-tree root selection is based on bridge IDs for each spanning-tree instance, not an access port's violation status. A single endpoint-facing port becoming error-disabled cannot make the entire switch the root bridge by itself. This is a local port availability/security event, so investigate port-security and recovery rather than STP election.

D:

Counting and dropping unauthorized frames while permitted traffic continues is closer to restrict mode, not the shutdown action named in the question. Once error-disabled, the port does not keep forwarding normal user traffic merely because the switch logs a violation. Confirm configured mode and operational state, since different violation actions have distinct consequences.

Question 638

A voice VLAN is configured on user port Gi1/0/7. An interswitch trunk omits that voice VLAN, although it permits the data VLAN. What is the probable symptom?

  1. All PC data traffic is necessarily transformed into the voice VLAN
  2. OSPF loses the router ID because of the voice VLAN alone
  3. The phone negotiates an IPv6 address from a DNS MX record
  4. Phone voice traffic loses connectivity beyond the trunk while PC data may continue

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

If the interswitch trunk permits the PC's data VLAN but excludes the phone's voice VLAN, the tagged voice frames cannot traverse that uplink while ordinary data traffic may still work. Phones can lose access to call control, DHCP, voice gateways or services on the far side, even though the attached PC remains connected. Verify voice VLAN ID, trunk allowed/active VLAN lists at both ends and the phone's CDP/LLDP-MED or switchport assignment before changing call-server settings.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An access port can distinguish a PC data VLAN and a separate tagged voice VLAN, so a trunk's omission of the voice VLAN does not automatically remap every PC frame into voice traffic. The allowed VLAN list controls which VLANs transit the uplink; it does not redefine the phone's downstream PC port. The data path can remain healthy while voice isolation fails.

B:

OSPF router IDs are chosen from routing configuration and interface addresses or explicit settings, not directly from whether a Layer 2 trunk allows a telephone's voice VLAN. The missing VLAN can interrupt IP services that use that segment but does not by itself reset the routing protocol identity. Troubleshoot trunk membership and voice endpoints.

C:

DNS MX records identify mail servers, not DHCP or IPv6 assignment services for an IP phone. A voice VLAN may use DHCP, SLAAC or other supported addressing methods, but it cannot obtain an address from an MX record. The described trunk omission is an Ethernet VLAN transport problem rather than an unusual DNS service.

Question 639

A wireless AP tunnels user data to a centrally managed WLAN controller. Which controller function supports policy consistency across APs?

  1. Replace the client operating system's TCP implementation
  2. Apply centralized WLAN security and client policy to the registered AP group
  3. Assign public IP addresses to every AP Ethernet port
  4. Force each AP to use a different encryption key with no coordination

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A controller-based WLAN can apply coordinated SSID settings, authentication methods, encryption policies and client access rules to managed APs rather than relying on separate manual configuration at every radio. When user data is centrally switched, the WLC may also enforce associated client policies along the tunneled data path. Verify the applicable policy or AP group, VLAN mappings, AAA integration and successful deployment; controller configuration alone does not guarantee every AP has synchronized.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A wireless LAN controller does not replace the TCP stack on each client operating system; hosts still implement their own transport protocols and applications. Centralized WLAN control affects radio configuration, authentication and policy, while TCP segments are generated and processed by endpoints. Altering client protocol software would not deliver consistent AP-group wireless policy.

C:

Every AP does not require a publicly routed IPv4 address to participate in a centralized WLAN; many enterprise APs use internal addresses and IP connectivity to a controller over CAPWAP. Public IP assignment is an addressing and security design concern, not a method for consistent WLAN encryption or access policy. The controller can manage remote APs through routable private networks.

D:

Forcing every AP to have an unrelated encryption key with no coordination would complicate roaming and credential management, potentially preventing legitimate clients from moving between radios. Central policy aims for consistent supported authentication and key management, with appropriate per-session cryptographic keys. Distinct per-client keys can be derived securely, but arbitrary independent AP configurations are not required.

Question 640

An IPv4 router must have a backup next hop 192.0.2.2 only when primary next hop 192.0.2.1's tracked reachability fails. Which mechanism fits?

  1. Floating or tracked static routing tied to a meaningful health condition
  2. A spanning-tree PortFast setting on the default route
  3. A static ARP mapping to 0.0.0.0 for all LAN hosts
  4. An SMTP relay server for routing updates

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A floating static route can provide a less-preferred alternate next hop, while object tracking or IP SLA-style reachability checks can condition its installation on the actual health of the primary path. This matches the requirement to use 192.0.2.2 only when the 192.0.2.1 path fails the defined test, not merely when a physical interface is up. Configure meaningful track conditions, appropriate administrative distance and valid return routing, then simulate failure and recovery to verify failover behavior.

Incorrect Answers

B:

PortFast accelerates spanning-tree transition for suitable endpoint-facing switchports and has no function in selecting a router's primary or backup IPv4 next hop. It can be dangerous on unintended interswitch links. The requested failover is a Layer 3 route-installation decision based on reachability, so manipulate routing preference and tracking rather than STP edge behavior.

C:

A static ARP entry maps an IP neighbor to a link-layer MAC address on a relevant segment; it cannot specify a global backup next hop for all destinations. Mapping arbitrary hosts to 0.0.0.0 is not a valid recovery design. Use route tables and reachability tracking to decide when alternate forwarding should become active.

D:

An SMTP relay transports email messages and does not update route preference or monitor an IP next hop's reachability for forwarding. It could send a notification after a link failure if integrated with monitoring, but the data plane would still need a routing mechanism for failover. Select tracked or floating static routes rather than an application mail service.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests