Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 62
Question 610
A switch port has port security maximum 1 with violation action restrict. A second source MAC appears. What is the expected behavior?
- The router changes its OSPF default route to the new MAC
- The access port is always administratively shut down immediately
- The second MAC is automatically learned as secure with no limit
- Frames from the violating MAC are dropped and the violation can be logged/counted
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Under port-security violation mode restrict, frames sourced by an unauthorized second MAC are dropped while the interface normally stays operational for the allowed secure MAC. The switch can increment violation counters and generate logging or SNMP notifications according to support and configuration. This differs from protect, which drops without equivalent reporting on many platforms, and from shutdown, which error-disables the port. Verify the configured maximum, learned secure MAC and violation statistics rather than expecting an immediate shutdown.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF default-route changes depend on Layer 3 routing information and policy, not the appearance of a second source MAC on an access switchport. Port security handles learned or configured MAC identities at Layer 2. A violation can suppress traffic from the unauthorized source without modifying any router routing-table entries.
B:Immediate error-disable or shutdown is characteristic of the shutdown port-security violation mode on many Cisco switches, not the requested restrict mode. With restrict, the port can continue carrying traffic from permitted secure addresses while rejecting violating frames. Inspect the configured violation action before concluding the entire interface must go administratively down.
C:With switchport port-security maximum 1, the port cannot accept and learn a second distinct source MAC as another authorized secure address simply because frames arrive. Dynamic secure learning is still limited by the configured maximum. If an extra MAC must legitimately connect, the operator must deliberately revise the policy and consider the port's intended endpoint topology.
Question 611
Four OSPF paths to the identical destination prefix 10.44.90.0/24 have equal prefix length and administrative distance. Their metrics are A=40, B=20, C=80, D=30. Which path is normally preferred?
- Path D with OSPF metric 30
- Path B with OSPF metric 20
- Path C with OSPF metric 80
- Path A with OSPF metric 40
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:For routes to the exact same 10.44.90.0/24 destination learned with equal administrative distance, OSPF selects the lowest calculated path cost. B has metric 20, less than 30, 40 or 80, making it the preferred single path under these stated assumptions. Check route age and next-hop reachability only if the given paths are not all valid and installed. Equal-cost multipath would require another valid candidate with the same lowest cost, which this comparison does not provide.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF metric 30 on path D is better than metrics 40 or 80 but worse than metric 20 on path B. Administrative distance and destination prefix length are equal for all candidates, so they do not distinguish the route here. The router next compares the OSPF path costs and normally installs the least-cost option.
C:A metric of 80 is the highest OSPF cost among the four candidates, making it the least preferred when prefixes and administrative distances match. The number does not represent a capacity, probability or routing priority where larger is better. The selected path for this OSPF comparison is whichever valid candidate carries the smallest cumulative cost.
D:Path A has OSPF cost 40, which cannot beat B's cost 20 under normal shortest-path selection for identical prefixes and source preference. A might be installed if the lower-cost path disappears or becomes ineligible, but the question states all four are available. Do not compare its metric with administrative distance or assume earlier alphabetic names imply preference.
Question 612
On a multilayer Catalyst switch, two SVI interfaces Vlan120 and Vlan130 are up/up, but hosts cannot route between them. What global feature should be checked?
- The default VLAN must be changed from 1 to 120 everywhere
- SNMP read-only community names must match
- ip routing is enabled to allow inter-VLAN IP forwarding
- All access ports must use switchport mode trunk
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:On many Catalyst multilayer switch configurations, global ip routing enables IPv4 forwarding between connected routed interfaces, including SVIs. With Vlan120 and Vlan130 both up/up and appropriately addressed, the switch needs routing enabled to serve as an inter-VLAN gateway. Verify the global command, hosts' default gateways and any applied ACLs after enabling it. Some hardware images and configurations behave differently, so confirm the device supports Layer 3 switching before assuming SVI presence alone guarantees transit forwarding.
Incorrect Answers
A:Changing the default VLAN from 1 to 120 is not a universal prerequisite for inter-VLAN routing and could break unrelated untagged traffic. The two SVIs are already reported as operational, so their VLANs exist in the intended context. What matters next is whether the multilayer device is permitted to route IP packets between its connected subnet interfaces.
B:SNMP community strings control access to a monitoring and management protocol, not the Layer 3 IP-forwarding behavior between SVIs. Matching SNMP read-only communities might allow a management application to poll both switches, but it does not turn on transit routing. Check the global routing enablement and interface subnet addresses before troubleshooting monitoring credentials.
D:Access ports normally connect to single-VLAN clients and do not all need trunk mode for VLANs 120 and 130 to exchange routed traffic. Forcing every access interface into a trunk role would change the intended Layer 2 boundary and could expose extra VLANs. A multilayer switch can route between SVIs while endpoint ports remain correctly configured as access ports.
Question 613
A monitoring app sends occasional small SNMP requests and expects independent responses without a permanent connection. Which protocol property can reduce per-request setup?
- SMTP mail relay between each probe and its response
- TCP's mandatory three-message setup for each monitoring datagram
- LLDP advertisement frames traversing every router
- UDP's connectionless datagram exchange
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:UDP transports independent datagrams without negotiating a persistent connection beforehand, reducing setup overhead for occasional small SNMP polling requests. A monitoring system commonly sends SNMP requests over UDP port 161 and correlates replies using protocol request identifiers and timeouts. Because UDP does not guarantee delivery, the manager must handle lost packets and retries; use SNMPv3 security features when confidentiality or authentication is required. The benefit is lack of connection setup, not a guarantee that every reply will arrive.
Incorrect Answers
A:SMTP is a TCP-based email transfer protocol and does not naturally implement the small SNMP request-and-response exchange described. Relaying each polling request through an email server would add delay and complexity without serving the standard management operation. The monitoring software should use a supported SNMP transport, not route counter queries through mail handling.
B:A TCP connection may be suitable for protocols that require reliable ordered streams, but establishing a new session for each tiny management query adds unnecessary setup relative to connectionless UDP. Traditional SNMP polling generally uses UDP and does not mandate a separate TCP three-way handshake for each request. Retry or timeout behavior is handled by the management application and the SNMP protocol's request identifiers.
C:LLDP announces local device and interface identity to directly connected Layer 2 peers; it is not a multi-hop transport for SNMP monitoring queries. Routers generally do not forward LLDP frames through an IP network. The requested poll-and-response behavior requires a management protocol over an appropriate IP transport rather than a neighbor-discovery frame.
Question 614
An engineer configures a /24 static route and a broader /16 static route toward different next hops. Traffic to an IP within both networks uses which preference?
- Whichever route has the newest configuration timestamp
- The longer matching /24 route regardless of the broader /16's distance
- The /16 route simply because its mask covers more destinations
- Whichever route is first in running-config text
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:IPv4 forwarding uses the longest installed matching destination prefix, so a /24 route is selected over a covering /16 for an address that belongs to both. Administrative distance decides which candidate source wins for the same destination prefix length, not whether a less-specific route beats a longer match. Verify the /24 next hop is reachable and that the route is installed; if it disappears, the /16 may become the fallback. The required comparison is specificity, not the order of ip route commands.
Incorrect Answers
A:The age of a configured static route does not normally decide which installed IPv4 prefix matches a destination. A newly configured broad /16 route remains less specific than an existing matching /24 when forwarding that destination, regardless of the time the configuration was entered. Inspect the installed prefixes and destination address rather than chronological configuration history.
C:A /16 covers a larger address range but has a shorter prefix length, making it less specific for any address also matched by an installed /24. Broad coverage is useful as a fallback, not a priority advantage. This choice reverses longest-prefix matching and could send traffic over the wrong next hop if applied as a routing assumption.
D:Cisco IOS does not use the textual order of static-route commands in running configuration as a forwarding-priority queue. The router builds its routing and forwarding tables from eligible prefixes and then matches packet destinations. Two entries can appear in either display order while the more-specific installed /24 remains preferred for the overlapping destination.
Question 615
An automated configuration change uses a service account with global Owner permissions on all networks. What control should precede scaling it?
- Disable audit logs to speed configuration deployment
- Least-privilege automation identity and an approval-controlled execution boundary
- Publish the service account password to every network engineer
- Use one unrestricted script to accept arbitrary user-supplied device commands
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A global Owner-style identity grants far more authority than most network automation jobs require, increasing the impact of a stolen credential or faulty script. Before scaling, create a service identity with only the relevant resource scopes and actions, require controlled deployment approvals and protect its secrets or federated credentials. Record changes with audit trails and test in a limited environment. Least privilege and a bounded execution path reduce blast radius while preserving legitimate repeatability and rollback.
Incorrect Answers
A:Audit logs are the evidence needed to attribute automated changes, investigate mistakes and detect unauthorized use of powerful service accounts. Disabling them would conceal the very risk created by an identity that can modify every network. Improve logging, change control and approval boundaries rather than weakening the operational record to gain minor execution speed.
C:Publishing a service-account password would remove individual accountability and expose configuration privileges to anyone who obtains the shared value. Even if the password were complex, distribution across a team creates more copies and a larger compromise surface. Use a secret store, managed identity or approved workload federation and individual authorization instead of shared credentials.
D:An unrestricted command-execution script that accepts arbitrary user input can turn a legitimate automation pipeline into a remote configuration abuse path. The service account's existing global privileges make this especially dangerous. Use validated parameters, command allowlists, scoped permissions and approval-controlled workflows rather than handing operator-provided strings directly to devices.
Question 616
A central syslog server must store warnings and more severe events but not purely informational debug traffic. Which filter concept should be applied?
- Use only messages with the highest numeric severity values
- Change all interfaces from access to trunk mode
- Remove the timestamps from all log messages
- Configure an appropriate severity threshold such as warning level 4
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Cisco syslog numeric levels run from 0 (emergency) through 7 (debug), with 4 representing warnings. A threshold of warning severity normally includes warning events and more severe levels 0–3 while excluding notice, informational and debug levels 5–7. Configure the appropriate logging trap or collector filter and confirm the actual device-to-server behavior. The number is an upper limit on included severity values, not a request to capture only level 4 messages.
Incorrect Answers
A:Cisco syslog levels use smaller severity numbers for more serious events, with emergency at 0 and debug at 7. Selecting only the highest numeric values would preferentially collect low-severity informational or debug messages, the opposite of the requirement. Apply a correctly interpreted threshold rather than ranking severity numbers as if larger meant more urgent.
B:Switchport access or trunk configuration governs how Ethernet VLAN frames traverse an interface, not which syslog event levels reach a central collector. Changing interface mode for logging purposes could disrupt user connectivity and VLAN separation. The logging configuration and server-side filters should be used to control event severity, independent of physical port role.
C:Removing timestamps would make a central syslog record harder to correlate across devices and does not distinguish serious from informational events. Severity is carried in the log metadata and filtering controls; timestamps provide useful incident sequence and troubleshooting context. Keep synchronized clocks and meaningful time fields while setting the severity cutoff that the monitoring team needs.
Question 617
A standard source-only ACL must protect one particular server LAN without affecting traffic to other destinations. Where should it typically be placed?
- Inside the DNS response body of all clients
- On the access-switch console port to match all traffic
- Near the destination to limit unintended blocking of the source's other traffic
- On every source LAN ingress regardless of other destinations
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A standard IPv4 ACL normally matches source addresses, not the packet's destination. Placing it near the particular destination LAN can block the disallowed source as traffic enters that LAN without also rejecting the same source's legitimate access to other destinations. Select the correct interface and direction, account for the implicit deny and add deliberate permit entries. This placement rule is a design guideline; test the actual topology to avoid unintended filtering.
Incorrect Answers
A:DNS responses contain name-resolution information and are not the normal place to enforce a router's standard IPv4 packet-access list. Modifying DNS answers would not selectively filter packets from a source subnet headed to the particular protected server LAN. The policy belongs on a packet-forwarding interface, with the ACL's source-only matching limitation considered.
B:A console port is an out-of-band administrative interface and does not carry normal forwarded IP traffic for users accessing the server network. Applying a network ACL concept there would not enforce source filtering on packets in transit. The router or routed switch interface on the actual traffic path must host the policy in the correct direction.
D:Installing the same source-only deny at every source-LAN ingress can prevent the source from reaching all destinations, not just the one sensitive server LAN. A standard ACL cannot refine its decision by destination address to avoid this collateral effect. Use destination-adjacent placement or a suitable extended ACL when more granular source-and-destination matching is needed.
Question 618
A switch has a trunk interface configured, but show interfaces trunk lists no actively trunking interfaces. What should be compared?
- The order of DHCP options in the server reply
- The operational trunk state, port mode and connected peer negotiation
- The laptop's web browser cache setting
- The router hostname length limit
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A configured trunk command does not prove the interface is operationally trunking. Review show interfaces switchport, physical link status and the connected peer's static mode or DTP negotiation behavior to determine why show interfaces trunk lists no active trunk. Both sides must be compatible and the interface must be up; some platforms also require specific encapsulation or supported trunk modes. Fix the precise mode or connectivity mismatch, then verify the operational listing rather than trusting saved configuration alone.
Incorrect Answers
A:DHCP options deliver client address configuration such as default gateway and DNS information, not the switch's operational 802.1Q trunk negotiation state. Changing DHCP option order cannot make two Ethernet peers establish a compatible trunk. Inspect interface operational mode, allowed VLANs and peer settings instead of changing an unrelated address service.
C:A laptop browser cache affects displayed web content and authentication sessions, not the physical or operational mode of a Catalyst switch trunk. The CLI output comes from switch interface state rather than a local web application. Clearing browser files would not enable VLAN tagging or resolve DTP compatibility with the directly connected peer.
D:A router or switch hostname is an administrative identifier that does not determine whether a physical interface is transporting tagged VLANs. Excessive hostname length may cause configuration validation issues on some platforms, but it would not explain an existing port failing to enter operational trunk mode. Diagnose negotiation and link conditions for this symptom.
Question 619
A router subnet is described by host interface 10.90.16.227/29. Which conventional last usable host address is within that subnet?
- 10.90.16.231
- 10.90.16.225
- 10.90.16.230
- 10.90.16.224
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A /29 mask leaves three host bits and creates eight-address blocks. Host.227 sits inside the.224 through.231 block;.224 is the network address and.231 is the directed broadcast under conventional IPv4 subnetting. That leaves.225 through.230 as usable hosts, making 10.90.16.230 the last usable address. This calculation assumes ordinary host allocation rather than special /31 point-to-point addressing, which is not involved here.
Incorrect Answers
A:For 10.90.16.227/29, the subnet begins at 10.90.16.224 and ends at.231. The high endpoint.231 is the conventional directed broadcast address, not an ordinary host address. Selecting it as the last usable value confuses the last address in a block with the last unicast host immediately before broadcast.
B:Address.225 is a valid host in the containing 10.90.16.224/29 subnet, but it is the first conventional usable address, not the last. A /29 has eight values: network.224, hosts.225 through.230 and broadcast.231. The question asks for the highest assignable host, so a lower valid host is not enough.
D:The.224 value identifies the 10.90.16.224/29 subnet and is not a normal unicast host address in that block. It may appear as a network prefix in routing tables, but should not be assigned as a conventional endpoint. Compute the block boundary and reserve the first and last addresses before choosing a usable high host value.
Question 620
A router's OSPF interface state is EXSTART for a long period, and peer MTU values differ. Which likely problem should be tested?
- The NTP server's stratum is higher than 10
- A different local router ospf process number
- The router's DNS domain suffix differs from its peer
- OSPF database-description exchange can stall because of MTU mismatch
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:OSPF neighbors in EXSTART negotiate database-description exchange parameters before progressing toward FULL adjacency. On many implementations an interface MTU mismatch can cause database-description packets to be rejected, leaving the adjacency stuck around EXSTART or EXCHANGE. Compare the actual MTU reported on both peer interfaces and inspect adjacency logs or packet captures; correct the transport MTU discrepancy before considering exceptions such as ip ospf mtu-ignore. Ensure area and timers also agree, but the provided differing MTUs are the strongest clue.
Incorrect Answers
A:NTP stratum is related to the distance of a time source from its reference and does not govern OSPF adjacency database-description exchange. A high-stratum clock might make log timing less trustworthy, but it would not explain a neighbor pair stuck in EXSTART with different interface MTUs. Inspect OSPF neighbor debugging and interface parameters first.
B:OSPF process IDs in traditional IOS are locally significant and need not match across neighbors for an adjacency to form. Matching area, network type, timers and other relevant parameters matters, but a different local process number alone is not the stated EXSTART cause. Focus on the documented MTU disagreement rather than copying a neighbor's arbitrary process identifier.
C:A router's DNS suffix helps resolve short names and is unrelated to exchanging OSPF database-description packets between IP neighbors. OSPF runs directly over IP protocol 89 and establishes adjacencies using protocol and interface conditions, not host naming suffixes. A DNS domain mismatch cannot diagnose the specified MTU difference during adjacency negotiation.