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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 60

Question 590

A configured ACL contains one permit tcp any any eq 22 entry and nothing else. What happens to an HTTPS request?

  1. It is denied by the implicit deny at the end of the ACL
  2. It is permitted because any permit applies to all protocols
  3. It is routed through a DHCP lease table without ACL checking
  4. It is redirected into an OSPF Hello packet

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cisco ACLs contain an implicit deny at the end, so an HTTPS request using TCP destination port 443 does not match the only explicit permit for TCP destination port 22. It is therefore denied unless another higher-priority policy path applies outside the stated ACL. Add explicit permits for HTTPS or other required traffic in the correct order before the implicit deny. Also verify that the ACL is applied to the intended interface and direction; a definition alone does not filter packets.

Incorrect Answers

B:

permit tcp any any eq 22 allows only the specified TCP destination port 22, normally SSH, not every TCP application or arbitrary IP protocol. The any any fields expand source and destination address matches but do not eliminate the transport-port test. An HTTPS request to port 443 fails that permit and encounters the implicit deny.

C:

DHCP lease records assign client IP addresses and options; they are not a substitute for evaluating an applied router ACL. An IP packet can be routed after address configuration, but traffic filtering remains governed by ACL entries and their order. A server having a valid DHCP lease does not make its HTTPS request permitted through an ACL with only an SSH permit.

D:

OSPF hellos are routing control messages and have no mechanism for transforming a denied HTTPS connection into authorized traffic. The ACL checks the packet's actual IPv4/transport fields; it neither changes the packet to OSPF nor grants a permit because a routing protocol is enabled. Correct the filtering policy, not the protocol type of the application packet.

Question 591

Two adjacent IPv6 static destinations 2001:db8:abcd:100::/64 and 2001:db8:abcd:101::/64 share the same next hop. Which single aligned aggregate includes precisely both /64 networks?

  1. 2001:db8:abcd:100::/64, which includes only the first subnet
  2. 2001:db8:abcd:100::/63, which covers :100::/64 and :101::/64
  3. 2001:db8:abcd::/48, which includes many unrelated /64 subnets
  4. 2001:db8:abcd:101::/63, which names an aligned distinct /63 block

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Two adjacent IPv6 /64 networks can be summarized with a /63 when their prefixes share the high 63 bits and the first subnet is aligned to that boundary. The fourth hextets 0x0100 and 0x0101 differ only in their least significant bit, so 2001:db8:abcd:100::/63 contains exactly the two /64 blocks. Confirm both share the same intended next hop and no more-specific exceptions require separate treatment before advertising the aggregate. This is prefix summarization, not link-local next-hop syntax.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An IPv6 /64 prefix fixes the entire fourth hextet and therefore cannot simultaneously describe both:100 and:101 as separate /64 networks. It covers only the first listed subnet. A one-bit shorter aggregate is needed to merge two adjoining, equally routed /64 blocks without widening to many unrelated destinations.

C:

An IPv6 /48 fixes only the first three hextets and includes a huge range of fourth-hextet /64 subnets, not just:100 and:101. It would attract traffic for destinations beyond the stated pair and could create routing black holes. A /63 is the least-broad single summary for the two contiguous /64s.

D:

A /63 boundary groups fourth-hextet values in even/odd pairs, so the aligned network base is:100, not:101. The latter value contains a host/subnet bit under the /63 mask and may be normalized to:100 on a device; it is not a distinct correctly aligned aggregate network identifier. Use the aligned:100::/63 representation.

Question 592

A design requires routing between two switches across one logical LACP link, rather than trunking VLANs. Which logical interface mode should be used?

  1. Separate host loopback addresses for each member cable only
  2. An access-mode Ethernet bundle in only VLAN 1
  3. A Layer 2 trunk with no SVI or routed subinterfaces
  4. A routed Layer 3 port-channel with IP addressing on the port-channel

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Configure a routed Layer 3 EtherChannel so its Port-channel interface carries the IP address and routing adjacency, while the compatible physical members provide one aggregated logical link. On supported switches, disable switchport mode for the routed channel and apply Layer 3 configuration to the port-channel rather than individual member ports. Verify LACP formation, matching member parameters and link aggregation status before expecting routing to work. This differs from a Layer 2 trunk used to carry multiple VLANs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Loopback addresses identify logical local endpoints and can be useful for router identification or stable management, but they do not turn multiple physical EtherChannel members into one routed transit link. The design needs an IP-addressed port-channel interface with consistent member behavior. Giving each cable only an unrelated loopback would not provide the requested adjacency.

B:

A Layer 2 access EtherChannel in VLAN 1 is a switched broadcast-domain connection, not a Layer 3 routed logical interface. It may carry frames within VLAN 1, but routers on opposite ends still need an IP interface for their point-to-point subnet. The question explicitly rejects mere VLAN carriage in favor of routing between switches.

C:

A Layer 2 trunk can transport several VLANs between devices, and routed SVIs could support Layer 3 communication in another design. The scenario specifically wants one routed logical LACP connection rather than a VLAN trunk and provides no SVI/subinterface arrangement. A trunk alone would not supply the expected port-channel IP adjacency.

Question 593

A campus keeps routing available after one aggregation device fails. Which feature of the aggregation layer matters beyond the number of access ports?

  1. Turning off all neighbor-discovery messages on uplinks
  2. Putting all endpoints on the same single failed uplink
  3. Giving all devices the same management IPv4 address
  4. Redundant Layer 3 forwarding paths through independent upstream devices

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Independent upstream aggregation devices and alternate Layer 3 links can preserve campus reachability after a single aggregation device fails. Routing protocols, equal-cost paths or first-hop redundancy can detect the failure and select a surviving route according to the design. Verify failure-domain independence, gateway behavior and return-path routing rather than simply counting available access ports. An access switch with many ports still has no resilient uplink if all routes converge on one failed box.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Discovery protocols may be used for troubleshooting but turning all of them off does not create a backup Layer 3 path. Removing neighbor advertisements can actually make link mapping and fault diagnosis harder after an aggregation failure. Resilience needs alternate forwarding devices and routes, not merely reduced discovery traffic.

B:

A single uplink for all endpoints becomes a shared failure point; if it or its upstream device fails, no independent traffic path remains. The question asks specifically about maintaining service when an aggregation device is lost. Redundant routing paths should avoid the same device, chassis or single circuit failure where practical.

C:

Giving routers and switches identical management addresses introduces IP conflicts and makes device monitoring unreliable. It is not the same as sharing a virtual first-hop gateway identity through a supported redundancy protocol. Each managed device still needs an appropriate unique identity while forwarding redundancy is designed through separate links, devices and routes.

Question 594

Two OSPFv2 neighbors on a point-to-point link reach EXSTART repeatedly. Interface MTUs are 1500 and 1400 bytes, while area and Hello timers match. Which repair should be tested first?

  1. Make both routers OSPF designated routers by raising their priorities
  2. Enable DTP trunk negotiation on the routed interfaces
  3. Align the link MTU values so database-description exchange can proceed
  4. Configure an HSRP virtual gateway on the point-to-point segment

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An OSPF MTU mismatch can cause database-description packets to be rejected and leave neighbors stuck in EXSTART or EXCHANGE. Align the two interfaces' operational MTUs with their transport capabilities, then clear or allow the neighbor session to retry and inspect show ip ospf neighbor. Cisco documents this as a common cause, and recommends correcting the underlying MTU difference rather than relying on ip ospf mtu-ignore except in special situations. Consistent area and timers alone do not complete database synchronization.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Point-to-point OSPF network type does not use the DR/BDR election process, so increasing priority will not address database-description negotiation. The routers have already reached EXSTART and their MTUs are inconsistent. Investigate the adjacency exchange prerequisites rather than inventing designated-router roles on a link that does not require them.

B:

Dynamic Trunking Protocol negotiates supported switch Ethernet trunk modes; it does not correct the IP MTU advertised in OSPF database-description messages. A routed point-to-point link can establish a neighbor without DTP. Introducing trunk negotiation would not make a 1400-byte receiver accept an incompatible peer-advertised MTU.

D:

HSRP offers a virtual first-hop gateway for clients and does not form or repair OSPF neighbor database synchronization. A point-to-point router link generally does not need an HSRP virtual address for its two routing peers. The EXSTART symptom with explicit MTU disagreement calls for OSPF interface troubleshooting.

Question 595

A configuration playbook is executed twice without desired changes, and the second run reports no modifications. What operational trait is demonstrated?

  1. An automatic change of every switch's router ID each run
  2. Idempotence of the configuration tasks
  3. A new random VLAN allocated for each invocation
  4. A mandatory reduction in Ethernet port speed on each run

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Idempotent configuration automation converges devices to a specified desired state and does not keep making changes when the desired configuration is already present. Running the same playbook a second time and observing no modifications is evidence of this property, assuming its state checks are trustworthy. Validate drift detection and behavior across supported platforms; a 'changed: false' report alone is not proof of all operational policies being correct. Avoid tasks that append duplicate commands on every execution.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Changing every router ID on every run would create needless control-plane instability and is the opposite of an idempotent configuration task. A safe repeat run should leave compliant device state unchanged. If a playbook regenerates identifiers each time, its design needs correction or deterministic input rather than being celebrated as an automation success.

C:

Allocating a random new VLAN for each invocation would accumulate different network configurations and violate the expectation of stable desired state. It might be suitable for a deliberately generated test environment with unique IDs, but not for a repeatable playbook targeting the same deployment. The current result demonstrates unchanged state on a second run.

D:

Ethernet speed depends on hardware capability, cable quality and negotiation or configured settings, not an inherent side effect of running automation. Reducing port speed on every playbook run would be an unintended disruptive configuration drift. Idempotence refers to stable application of intended settings, not a mandatory physical-performance penalty.

Question 596

An enterprise NTP topology has an internal time server synchronized to an upstream source, and branch switches point at the internal server. Which role does the internal device provide?

  1. It is a layer-two STP root and cannot offer NTP service
  2. It advertises all client IP addresses using DNS SRV only
  3. It serves downstream NTP clients while itself obtaining upstream synchronization
  4. It replaces each switch's IPv4 default route with a time value

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An internal NTP server can synchronize its own clock to a trustworthy upstream reference and then serve downstream branch switches using NTP. This provides a controlled local time source and may reduce dependency on many external NTP connections. Confirm the upstream reference is actually synchronized, check stratum and reachability, and secure NTP access and authentication where supported. Serving time does not make the internal device inherently authoritative if its own reference becomes invalid; monitor loss of synchronization.

Incorrect Answers

A:

STP root election governs which bridge is preferred for loop-free Layer 2 paths. A time server can be hosted on the same network as a switching platform, but its NTP role is independent of STP status. The scenario explicitly says the internal node accepts upstream synchronization and serves branch clients, so it is a time-service intermediary.

B:

DNS SRV records can advertise service endpoints in particular discovery systems but do not automatically synchronize clock offsets or distribute NTP time. Branch devices need the correct NTP association and network reachability to the internal server. The question is about clock stratum relationships, not address advertisements or client IP inventory.

D:

An IPv4 default route specifies where packets travel when no more specific destination matches, and it is not replaced with a time value from NTP. Branch switches still need working network routes to reach their time server. Synchronizing clocks helps logs and certificate validity but does not change the gateway IP used for unrelated traffic.

Question 597

A switch performs Dynamic ARP Inspection on VLAN 20 using DHCP snooping bindings. What malicious behavior is it intended to block?

  1. Any DNS lookup for a hostname with multiple A records
  2. All IPv6 neighbor discovery packets on every routed network
  3. Encrypted SSH sessions from authorized users
  4. Forged IP-to-MAC ARP claims inconsistent with approved bindings

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Dynamic ARP Inspection can compare received ARP sender IP/MAC information with authorized DHCP snooping bindings, and optionally static ARP ACLs for fixed-address hosts, to discard forged claims on untrusted ports. This reduces common ARP spoofing or man-in-the-middle attacks within a VLAN. Configure trusted uplinks carefully, account for statically addressed devices, and verify logging and drop counters so legitimate ARP traffic is not blocked unnecessarily. The feature protects IPv4 neighbor mapping rather than ordinary DNS queries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS responses with multiple A records are normal for many load-distributed services and are not the Layer 2 ARP spoofing condition that DAI checks. DAI examines ARP sender protocol/MAC information on selected switch ports. A domain name having several addresses does not itself imply a forged IP-to-MAC mapping.

B:

IPv6 Neighbor Discovery uses ICMPv6 messages and different protection mechanisms from IPv4 Dynamic ARP Inspection. DAI checks ARP frames, so it cannot be said to block every IPv6 ND packet on unrelated routed networks. Network operators may need IPv6 first-hop security separately when defending against rogue router advertisements or neighbor claims.

C:

SSH provides encrypted management sessions above the LAN forwarding layer and is not inherently the target of DAI validation. A legitimate SSH packet can traverse the switch after normal address resolution. DAI seeks inconsistent ARP assertions, not all authenticated remote management connections; careless trust configuration can nonetheless disrupt a client's initial ARP connectivity.

Question 598

A distribution designated port unexpectedly receives a superior BPDU from a new downstream access device. Which control keeps that downstream device from becoming root?

  1. Root Guard on the designated-facing link
  2. Change the access host DNS server addresses
  3. LACP passive on unrelated switch interfaces
  4. PortFast so the downstream device wins the election sooner

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Root Guard on a designated switchport blocks a downstream neighbor that sends a superior BPDU from taking over the intended spanning-tree root role. When such a BPDU arrives, the port enters a root-inconsistent state rather than accepting the untrusted superior bridge as root through that path. It can return when superior BPDUs stop, depending on platform behavior. Place Root Guard on appropriate downstream-facing designated ports, not on uplinks where a legitimate root is expected.

Incorrect Answers

B:

DNS server addresses allow hosts to resolve names and have no effect on STP bridge ID comparisons or a downstream switch's superior BPDUs. Changing them could disrupt application lookup without correcting root election. The issue is the topology-control plane and requires STP-specific guard behavior on the designated boundary.

C:

LACP passive mode controls whether a switch initiates link-aggregation negotiation; it does not evaluate whether BPDUs from another switch advertise a superior root. An EtherChannel might carry STP traffic, but changing an unrelated LACP mode is not a root-protection mechanism. Configure the specific designated STP-facing interface with appropriate guard policy.

D:

PortFast accelerates edge-port transition toward forwarding and is meant for non-switch endpoint links. Enabling it so a downstream switch wins root election would undermine the intended hierarchy and can introduce loops. The scenario requires preventing an unauthorized root takeover; Root Guard directly responds to superior BPDUs on a designated link.

Question 599

A branch connects an on-premises workload to a cloud network over a private hybrid path. What requirement should be checked before routing is enabled?

  1. Keeping every connection in a single Layer 2 broadcast domain across both sites
  2. Nonoverlapping address ranges and a valid route between local and cloud prefixes
  3. Identical default gateways on unrelated on-premises and cloud subnets
  4. The same physical switch port number at both facilities

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A hybrid private connection must have nonoverlapping or deliberately translated IP address ranges and route entries that direct traffic between the on-premises and cloud prefixes. Overlapping CIDRs can make destination selection ambiguous, while missing return routes can produce one-way failures even if the transport circuit is operational. Verify gateway attachments, firewall/ACL policy, route propagation and DNS needs before enabling application flows. Private transport alone does not ensure secure or reachable workloads without appropriate routing design.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A private hybrid network can route between separate on-premises and cloud subnets without merging them into one Ethernet broadcast domain. Forcing one Layer 2 segment over a long hybrid path can amplify broadcast and failure scope and is not required for IP connectivity. Plan distinct routed prefixes and controlled peering or private-link routing instead.

C:

Using identical default gateway addresses on unrelated on-premises and cloud networks is not a hybrid routing requirement and can cause conflicts when ranges overlap. Each subnet needs an appropriate gateway in its own local addressing context. Cross-site traffic is delivered using network routes or translation policies, not by cloning one gateway IP everywhere.

D:

Physical switchport numbers are local hardware identifiers and have no network-wide meaning across a cloud virtual network and an on-premises site. Two facilities need not have matching interface numbers for Layer 3 reachability. What matters is compatible transport, address uniqueness, route policy and permitted paths between the intended prefixes.

Question 600

An IPv4 router has static 10.14.88.0/24 [AD 220] and OSPF 10.14.0.0/16 [AD 110], both installed and reachable. For packet 10.14.88.42, which route is selected under ordinary destination lookup?

  1. The /16 OSPF route because its administrative distance 110 is lower
  2. Both routes must forward equally because both are installed
  3. The route learned most recently, regardless of prefix lengths
  4. The static /24, because its longer destination prefix matches more specifically

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For destination 10.14.88.42, both 10.14.0.0/16 and 10.14.88.0/24 match, but the static /24 has 24 fixed destination bits versus 16. Ordinary IP forwarding therefore selects that more-specific installed route even though its AD 220 is worse than OSPF's 110. Administrative distance matters among candidates to the same prefix; it does not reorder different prefix lengths. If the /24 disappears, the valid /16 can serve as a fallback.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Administrative distance chooses among eligible route sources for the same destination prefix, but the two installed prefixes here have different lengths. An installed /24 is more specific than the covering /16. The lower OSPF AD cannot make the /16 win for an address covered by the valid /24 static route.

B:

Equal-cost multipath normally concerns qualifying routes with matching destination prefix lengths and equal preference, not a /16 and its more-specific /24. The router does not blindly split traffic over all installed covering routes. It selects the longest matching prefix before comparing candidates at the same prefix specificity.

C:

Configuration or update time does not override ordinary longest-prefix destination matching. A newly learned broad OSPF route remains less specific than an already installed /24 for traffic inside 10.14.88.0/24. Check prefixes and next-hop validity rather than timestamps if the observed path is surprising.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests