Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 59
Question 580
A default static route sends all unknown destinations to a failed serial link, but the route is still installed. What should failover verification include?
- Whether all access switches use the same VLAN 1 MAC address
- Whether the router's hostname follows DNS RFC label capitalization
- Whether HTTP clients send a User-Agent header
- Whether the route's next hop or track condition is being removed when connectivity fails
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A static default route can remain installed when its outgoing interface is up but the upstream gateway or provider path has failed. Verify whether the next hop is resolvable and whether IP SLA, object tracking or a suitable routing protocol withdraws or deprioritizes the primary path after a real failure. Test the actual backup route and return path rather than relying solely on the configured administrative distance. An apparently active route is not proof that traffic can reach the Internet.
Incorrect Answers
A:Using identical source MAC addresses on multiple access switches can cause forwarding confusion and MAC flapping; it does not detect when an upstream static default next hop stops responding. The static route may remain installed while the far-side WAN path is broken. Failover requires appropriate route or health-state information, not spoofed Ethernet identities.
B:DNS hostname capitalization generally does not determine whether a static default route should be removed after a serial path failure. Names are a management convenience, whereas route installation relies on interface state, next-hop resolution and optional tracked conditions. Rewriting the hostname cannot test upstream carrier reachability.
C:An HTTP User-Agent header identifies client software in a web request and cannot signal a router to withdraw a static default route. Failover should be evaluated through routing and reachability mechanisms independent of application header content. The WAN default may affect HTTP traffic, but the reverse dependency does not exist.
Question 581
The SVI interface Vlan44 is administratively up with an IP address, yet it is down/down. Which prerequisite should the operator verify?
- The switch has an SMTP server listening on port 25
- The switch's HTTP interface uses the correct certificate CN
- Every VLAN 44 client has the same static IPv4 address
- VLAN 44 exists and has at least one eligible up/forwarding Layer 2 port or trunk
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:On supported Cisco Catalyst switches, an SVI can be administratively up yet have line protocol down when its VLAN is absent, inactive, or has no eligible active Layer 2 port forwarding in that VLAN. Confirm VLAN 44 exists, the connected access/trunk interfaces carry it, and spanning-tree status permits forwarding. Some platforms offer autostate controls, so inspect the actual device behavior; a configured IP alone does not establish SVI Layer 2 operational state.
Incorrect Answers
A:SMTP on TCP port 25 sends mail messages and is not part of the Layer 2 autostate conditions for a routed switch virtual interface. An email service could generate operational alerts but would not bring interface Vlan44's line protocol up. Investigate the VLAN database and local forwarding member links rather than adding a mail server.
B:A management HTTP certificate affects trust in the switch's web interface, not the operational link state of VLAN 44. Certificate verification can be important for secure administration, but line protocol is computed from VLAN and port forwarding state on applicable Catalyst configurations. An incorrect certificate name cannot supply an active Layer 2 member interface.
C:Giving all clients one identical IPv4 address would cause address conflicts and is not an SVI autostate requirement. The gateway SVI needs valid addressing, but the problem says it already has an address and is administratively enabled. Check whether the VLAN has an operational forwarding port before changing client IP allocations or introducing duplicates.
Question 582
An OSPF broadcast domain already has a stable DR. A newly connected router has a higher priority than that DR. What happens automatically?
- The new router immediately replaces the DR at every hello
- The new router does not preempt the existing operational DR
- Every router loses its configured IPv4 address on the broadcast VLAN
- The existing BDR becomes a DHCP relay instead of an OSPF router
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:OSPF DR elections on broadcast networks are normally nonpreemptive. A router with a better interface priority can become eligible for a future DR/BDR election but does not automatically displace a healthy incumbent DR when it joins. Check show ip ospf neighbor and interface priority and be mindful of actual election timing; a failure or relevant topology reset can lead to a different role selection later. Priority affects candidacy, not forced immediate takeover.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF designated-router selection is not a per-hello preemption contest. Once the current DR is established, a newly arriving router with higher priority normally joins without forcing immediate replacement. Assuming every high-priority hello changes the DR could lead to misunderstanding stable adjacency behavior and unnecessary control-plane investigations during a harmless router addition.
C:OSPF router priority influences routing control-plane elections and does not erase IPv4 addresses from interfaces. The broadcast VLAN remains addressed as configured and can continue to route even while neighbor roles evolve. An IPv4 addressing failure would require separate interface, DHCP or configuration evidence rather than merely the appearance of a high-priority OSPF peer.
D:A backup designated router is an OSPF adjacency optimization role; it cannot automatically become a DHCP relay because a new router joins. DHCP forwarding needs explicit interface and helper configuration. The existing BDR may eventually become DR after the active DR fails, but it does not change its Layer 3 service role to address leasing.
Question 583
Two APs at adjacent offices use the same channel and provide strongly overlapping coverage. What is the expected WLAN performance issue?
- The Ethernet switches stop learning source MAC addresses
- Co-channel contention and airtime sharing between overlapping BSSs
- Elimination of all contention due to their shared frequency
- Guaranteed doubling of air capacity on every client
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Two nearby access points using the same channel and overlapping strongly must contend for shared airtime under 802.11 medium-access rules. Clients on both BSSs may wait for transmissions or retry after interference, reducing aggregate efficiency even though they connect to different APs. Adjust channel assignments, radio power and coverage based on a site survey. Same-channel reuse is sometimes necessary, but strong overlap should be planned rather than assumed to double capacity.
Incorrect Answers
A:Ethernet switches learn source MACs from local frames independently of the Wi-Fi radio-channel plan. Co-channel overlap can reduce effective wireless throughput, but it does not by itself disable source-address learning on a downstream wired switch. Trace RF contention and airtime utilization before blaming unrelated MAC learning on the LAN.
C:Sharing one radio frequency does not eliminate contention; it is precisely what causes stations in overlapping coverage to share the medium. Even if APs recognize each other's transmissions and defer successfully, their transmissions consume a finite airtime budget. The remedy is RF planning rather than assuming collision or contention avoidance disappears automatically.
D:A second AP on the same crowded channel does not guarantee twice the available capacity for each client. Strong overlapping cells can increase contention and management traffic while splitting the same channel airtime among more transmitters. Capacity gains require appropriate channel reuse and cell design, not merely adding a radio with identical settings.
Question 584
A VPN design allows a remote gateway to forward an entire original IP packet through an ESP tunnel, with new outer routing addresses. Which IPsec encapsulation mode fits?
- Ordinary TCP transport mode without IPsec encryption
- Plain Ethernet MAC learning with no IPsec encapsulation
- A DNS alias that points to both VPN gateway hostnames
- Tunnel mode protecting the original IP packet inside an outer IP header
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:IPsec ESP tunnel mode protects an entire inner IP packet and encapsulates it for forwarding between tunnel endpoints using an additional outer IP header. This is suited to gateway-to-gateway VPNs where internal source and destination addresses remain part of the inner packet while the public network routes using endpoint addresses. Check security associations, encryption and integrity settings, traffic selectors, MTU overhead and return routing. ESP transport mode protects payload within the original IP context and does not serve the same full-packet tunneling requirement.
Incorrect Answers
A:Ordinary TCP transport provides a byte stream with connection control but does not encrypt and encapsulate an entire original IP datagram as IPsec ESP tunnel mode does. TCP may run inside a VPN payload, yet it does not create new outer routing addresses for a protected packet. The question asks about IPsec packet encapsulation rather than application transport.
B:Ethernet MAC learning decides forwarding within a Layer 2 broadcast domain and cannot provide IPsec security across an untrusted routed network. A switch may carry the already encapsulated traffic, but MAC-table operations do not encrypt an original IP packet or add the new outer IP header required to cross the public WAN.
C:A DNS alias may help users resolve a VPN gateway hostname but is not an encapsulation method and does not protect packets. DNS records say where to contact a service, whereas ESP tunnel processing wraps the original IP datagram in a new protected packet with tunnel-endpoint addressing. The alias alone supplies neither encryption nor an outer header.
Question 585
An API client must update one existing policy description while preserving the other attributes. Which REST method normally expresses partial modification?
- DELETE on the policy URI
- PATCH on the identified policy resource
- GET on the policy URI
- A new unauthenticated POST to the root path
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:PATCH normally expresses a partial modification of a named REST resource, allowing an API client to update the description while leaving unrelated fields unchanged according to the service's patch semantics. Provide the correct media type, authentication and conditional version handling if supported; check the API schema for its exact PATCH behavior. Test the returned representation or perform a GET afterward to confirm no other attributes changed. The operation is not guaranteed to be identical across every proprietary REST endpoint.
Incorrect Answers
A:DELETE requests removal of the addressed resource, making it unsafe when the administrator merely wants to change one description. Sending DELETE could remove the policy and its other attributes, creating a wider service impact. Use an update operation supported by the API and validate the response rather than turning a partial metadata change into deletion.
C:GET retrieves the existing resource representation under ordinary REST semantics and does not ask the server to change the description. It is useful for examining current policy attributes before an update and for verifying the result afterward. By itself, a GET request cannot express the requested partial modification, even if the URL contains the policy identifier.
D:An unauthenticated POST to the root path is not a defensible way to update a specific existing policy. POST often requests creation or an operation defined by a particular endpoint; without the resource identifier and authorization, the server may reject it or create something new. Use the documented, authenticated partial-update operation instead of guessing at endpoint semantics.
Question 586
An IOS router translates inside private sources but no mappings appear when users send Internet traffic. What interface role configuration should be examined?
- The DNS MX priority of the ISP gateway
- A longer SNMP community name for the WAN router
- Matching STP root bridge priorities on both router interfaces
- Correct ip nat inside and ip nat outside assignments on the intended interfaces
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Cisco IOS inside-source NAT usually requires correct ip nat inside and ip nat outside interface roles to determine which packets qualify for translation as they cross the router. If these roles are missing or reversed, valid inside users may generate traffic without creating the expected translations. Verify the matching ACL or route map, overload or pool statement, interface status and downstream routes after confirming the roles. The NAT table alone does not prove which part of the forwarding path failed.
Incorrect Answers
A:DNS MX records describe mail-routing priorities for a domain; they have no role in identifying IOS interfaces as inside or outside NAT zones. An enterprise router may use DNS for remote names, but no mail-exchanger priority can create address translations. Examine the NAT-enabled interface direction and classification rules.
B:An SNMP community or SNMPv3 credential allows management queries and notifications but does not turn packet address translation on. A more complex community string may improve neither usability nor security when users receive no Internet translations. Check whether the packets enter an ip nat inside interface and leave an appropriate outside interface before changing monitoring credentials.
C:Spanning-tree priority selects Layer 2 loop-free roots and cannot define NAT inside/outside semantics on routed interfaces. A router's Ethernet VLAN topology may affect reachability upstream, but matching two STP root priorities is not the prerequisite for generating IP address-translation entries. Troubleshoot interface roles, NAT rules and routing separately.
Question 587
R1 learns 192.168.69.0/24 through two OSPF neighbors, each with administrative distance 110 and total cost 20. It also has a configured floating static route for the identical /24 at administrative distance 180. Both OSPF paths are healthy and the platform allows two equal-cost next hops. What should the installed forwarding state normally contain?
- Only one OSPF next hop selected by whichever neighbor advertises the numerically highest router ID
- The static next hop installed alongside the OSPF next hops because its route metric is numerically zero
- Only the floating static route because manually configured routes always override dynamic routing regardless of distance
- Both equal-cost OSPF next hops, while the higher-distance static route remains an available fallback
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Both OSPF neighbors advertise the same destination /24 at equal total cost 20 with administrative distance 110. Because R1 supports two equal-cost next hops, both qualifying OSPF paths can be present in the routing or forwarding table for ECMP handling. The configured static candidate at distance 180 is less preferred for that identical prefix and acts as a fallback if the active OSPF options become unusable. Verify actual adjacency and maximum-path limits rather than assuming a backup static always carries traffic.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF router IDs identify neighbors and participate in certain protocol operations, but choosing the highest router ID is not the normal rule for discarding one of two eligible equal-cost forwarding paths. The described platform supports two OSPF next hops at the same cost, so both may install. A device's maximum-path setting and route state matter more than alphabetical or numerical neighbor identities.
B:A static route's displayed metric does not automatically make it preferable to dynamic paths learned for the same prefix. Administrative distance distinguishes route-source preference before metric comparisons between different protocols or sources. Here the static has distance 180 versus OSPF 110, so it is intentionally a floating backup; it should not be installed as a third ECMP member while healthy OSPF choices exist.
C:Static routes often use a default administrative distance of 1, but the scenario explicitly configures this static candidate at 180. That higher value makes it less preferred than healthy OSPF routes at distance 110. Manually configured does not mean absolute precedence; a floating static route is designed to wait until preferred entries disappear or lose eligibility.
Question 588
Two switches must transport only VLANs 13 and 23 across a point-to-point trunk, including keeping VLAN 1 off its permitted list. Which allowed-list form fits?
- no switchport
- switchport trunk allowed vlan 13,23
- switchport mode access
- switchport trunk allowed vlan all
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:switchport trunk allowed vlan 13,23 defines an explicit allowed list containing VLAN 13 and VLAN 23 on a compatible trunk. Other VLANs, including VLAN 1, are not permitted as user data by that list; note that some control protocols may have platform-specific behaviors independent of normal data VLAN forwarding. Configure both peers for compatible trunking and verify actual allowed and active VLANs with show interfaces trunk. A correct allowed list does not automatically enable trunk mode or instantiate absent VLANs.
Incorrect Answers
A:The no switchport command converts a supported physical interface to a Layer 3 routed port rather than defining a VLAN trunk allowed list. It would be inappropriate when the design explicitly requires transporting tagged VLANs 13 and 23 between switches. The port needs trunk mode and a restricted VLAN set, not a routed-interface conversion.
C:switchport mode access sets a port to ordinary access behavior for one data VLAN. It cannot serve the requested multi-VLAN interswitch 802.1Q trunk or enforce a two-VLAN trunk allowed list. Access configuration might be appropriate for a desktop, but it is not the intended role for this point-to-point switch connection.
D:switchport trunk allowed vlan all makes all available VLANs eligible to cross an operational trunk, contrary to the requirement to permit only 13 and 23 and exclude VLAN 1. It would potentially widen the Layer 2 attack and broadcast scope. Use an explicit allowed list and validate both endpoints, rather than relying on the broad default.
Question 589
A hypervisor needs different virtual guests to attach to distinct switch VLANs over a tagged physical uplink. What feature provides this?
- Using the same untagged native VLAN for every guest network
- VLAN-aware virtual switching and a matching physical 802.1Q trunk
- Turning off all VLAN processing on the physical switch
- Giving every VM the same Ethernet source MAC address
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A VLAN-aware virtual switch can assign each VM virtual NIC or port group to a specific VLAN and send corresponding 802.1Q-tagged frames over a physical uplink configured to carry those VLANs. The upstream switch trunk must allow the tags, and the hypervisor's VLAN mappings must agree with the physical network design. Keep management or tenant boundaries deliberate and verify any native VLAN handling so untagged frames are not misclassified. Merely using a trunk without matching guest mapping will not achieve reliable isolation.
Incorrect Answers
A:One common native VLAN is useful for handling untagged traffic on a trunk, but assigning every virtual guest to it would erase the intended segmentation among different guest networks. The design calls for multiple tagged VLANs mapped to distinct virtual port groups. Native-VLAN settings cannot by themselves provide those independent logical networks.
C:Disabling VLAN processing on the physical switch would prevent reliable separation and forwarding for guests assigned different VLAN IDs. The physical uplink must understand tagged traffic if it is expected to carry several guest networks. An untagged access port could carry one VLAN, but not the multiple independent tagged segments described.
D:Duplicate source MAC addresses across independent VMs can cause MAC-table instability and make traffic appear to move between ports. This does not create VLAN separation and can break delivery even if the physical trunk is correct. Each virtual adapter needs a suitable unique MAC identity while the virtual switch maps it to the intended VLAN.
Question 590
A configured ACL contains one permit tcp any any eq 22 entry and nothing else. What happens to an HTTPS request?
- It is denied by the implicit deny at the end of the ACL
- It is permitted because any permit applies to all protocols
- It is routed through a DHCP lease table without ACL checking
- It is redirected into an OSPF Hello packet
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Cisco ACLs contain an implicit deny at the end, so an HTTPS request using TCP destination port 443 does not match the only explicit permit for TCP destination port 22. It is therefore denied unless another higher-priority policy path applies outside the stated ACL. Add explicit permits for HTTPS or other required traffic in the correct order before the implicit deny. Also verify that the ACL is applied to the intended interface and direction; a definition alone does not filter packets.
Incorrect Answers
B:permit tcp any any eq 22 allows only the specified TCP destination port 22, normally SSH, not every TCP application or arbitrary IP protocol. The any any fields expand source and destination address matches but do not eliminate the transport-port test. An HTTPS request to port 443 fails that permit and encounters the implicit deny.
C:DHCP lease records assign client IP addresses and options; they are not a substitute for evaluating an applied router ACL. An IP packet can be routed after address configuration, but traffic filtering remains governed by ACL entries and their order. A server having a valid DHCP lease does not make its HTTPS request permitted through an ACL with only an SSH permit.
D:OSPF hellos are routing control messages and have no mechanism for transforming a denied HTTPS connection into authorized traffic. The ACL checks the packet's actual IPv4/transport fields; it neither changes the packet to OSPF nor grants a permit because a routing protocol is enabled. Correct the filtering policy, not the protocol type of the application packet.