Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 61
Question 600
An IPv4 router has static 10.14.88.0/24 [AD 220] and OSPF 10.14.0.0/16 [AD 110], both installed and reachable. For packet 10.14.88.42, which route is selected under ordinary destination lookup?
- The /16 OSPF route because its administrative distance 110 is lower
- Both routes must forward equally because both are installed
- The route learned most recently, regardless of prefix lengths
- The static /24, because its longer destination prefix matches more specifically
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:For destination 10.14.88.42, both 10.14.0.0/16 and 10.14.88.0/24 match, but the static /24 has 24 fixed destination bits versus 16. Ordinary IP forwarding therefore selects that more-specific installed route even though its AD 220 is worse than OSPF's 110. Administrative distance matters among candidates to the same prefix; it does not reorder different prefix lengths. If the /24 disappears, the valid /16 can serve as a fallback.
Incorrect Answers
A:Administrative distance chooses among eligible route sources for the same destination prefix, but the two installed prefixes here have different lengths. An installed /24 is more specific than the covering /16. The lower OSPF AD cannot make the /16 win for an address covered by the valid /24 static route.
B:Equal-cost multipath normally concerns qualifying routes with matching destination prefix lengths and equal preference, not a /16 and its more-specific /24. The router does not blindly split traffic over all installed covering routes. It selects the longest matching prefix before comparing candidates at the same prefix specificity.
C:Configuration or update time does not override ordinary longest-prefix destination matching. A newly learned broad OSPF route remains less specific than an already installed /24 for traffic inside 10.14.88.0/24. Check prefixes and next-hop validity rather than timestamps if the observed path is surprising.
Question 601
An operator wants to inspect only the static routes currently installed in the IPv4 routing table. Which command is appropriate?
- show cdp neighbors detail
- show vlan brief
- show interfaces description
- show ip route static
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:show ip route static filters the IPv4 routing information base to installed static routes and is the direct diagnostic requested. A configured static route may fail to install if next-hop resolution or interface conditions make it ineligible, so this output is more specific than reading only the running configuration. Verify the expected prefixes and next hops here, then inspect configuration or reachability if a route is missing.
Incorrect Answers
A:show cdp neighbors detail identifies directly discovered Cisco neighbors and their advertised attributes, not the routes installed in the IPv4 forwarding information. It can help discover a nearby next-hop device or interface, but it cannot establish which static prefixes are currently in the routing table. Use the route-specific display requested before investigating neighbor discovery.
B:show vlan brief reports VLAN identifiers, names and associated switch access interfaces on supported devices. A VLAN's presence says nothing about whether the router has installed a configured static IPv4 prefix, especially if its next hop is unresolved. Inspect routing information rather than interpreting a Layer 2 VLAN listing as a route table.
C:show interfaces description summarizes interface names, administrative/operational status and configured text labels. While interface state may explain why a next hop is unreachable, the command does not filter installed IPv4 routes by their source. The operator needs the routing-table view, not an inventory of port descriptions, to satisfy the precise request.
Question 602
A mesh deployment has a rooftop wired bridge AP and downstream mesh APs without direct Ethernet backhaul. Which property should be considered?
- Every AP must disable all RF radios after joining
- Every remote mesh AP must have a separate Internet ISP connection
- Only a layer-three static route on the AP itself determines RF backhaul
- Mesh APs forward traffic over supported wireless backhaul to a wired root
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:In a supported wireless mesh, remote mesh access points use RF backhaul to reach a root or rooftop AP that has a wired network connection. Their traffic may traverse one or more mesh hops, so RF coverage, channel design and hop capacity directly influence reliability and throughput. Verify that the root has an operational Ethernet uplink, that nonroot APs can associate over supported mesh links, and that each path has sufficient signal margin.
Incorrect Answers
A:Disabling all access-point radios would remove the wireless transport that downstream mesh nodes rely on for backhaul. A mesh AP can use radio resources both to connect through the mesh and, when supported and configured, to serve clients. The appropriate checks concern RF links, parent selection and the wired root, not blanket radio shutdown after joining.
B:Independent ISP circuits at every remote mesh AP would defeat the intended wireless extension from the rooftop wired root. Mesh descendants can forward their traffic through supported wireless links toward the root's existing wired network. Additional Internet access might be a separate resilience design, but it is not a requirement for each remote mesh node to participate.
C:A Layer 3 static route describes IP packet forwarding and by itself cannot establish 802.11 mesh association or radio backhaul. Mesh operation depends on supported AP roles, RF reachability, link quality and a compatible controller or management design. After forming the wireless path, ordinary IP routing may still matter, but it does not determine radio connectivity alone.
Question 603
Two direct-connected switches support 25G SFP28 interfaces, but one side uses an unsupported DAC cable. What should be verified first?
- Whether the endpoints have matching DNS search domains
- Whether both devices use the same VLAN 1 management address
- Both switch hardware ports support the exact DAC type, reach and vendor compatibility
- Whether the firewall has an established TCP session
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Both 25G interfaces must support the exact cable assembly, its passive or active electrical design, permitted reach and any platform-specific vendor identification checks. SFP28 port shape alone does not guarantee that every DAC works in every switch. Compare both device hardware compatibility lists, optic or cable diagnostics and interface transceiver error messages before changing VLANs. A compatible model and length should establish the physical link when other port settings also agree.
Incorrect Answers
A:DNS search domains influence how devices expand and resolve hostnames, not whether an SFP28 port accepts a specific direct-attach cable. Even perfectly matched DNS settings cannot compensate for an unsupported transceiver identifier or active-versus-passive DAC requirement. Determine link-layer hardware compatibility first; management name resolution is useful only after physical connectivity exists.
B:Two separate switches should not be assigned the same management IPv4 address in one subnet because that can create duplicate-address conflicts. Matching VLAN numbers and management addressing are distinct from SFP28 cable support. A port with an unsupported DAC can stay down even on an otherwise valid management network, so inspect approved cable part numbers and port capabilities.
D:An established firewall TCP session is an application or transport-layer consequence of working connectivity, not a prerequisite for a direct SFP28 copper link. The link should establish electrical signaling and module compatibility long before packets reach a firewall. Verify DAC support and physical alarms first; session tables are relevant later if the physical link is up but traffic is blocked.
Question 604
An operator needs to block traffic entering the router on Gi0/1, before routing decisions toward the LAN. Which interface ACL direction applies?
- switchport access vlan NAME on Gi0/1
- ip access-group NAME in on Gi0/1
- router ospf NAME area 0 under Gi0/1
- ip access-group NAME out on Gi0/1
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Applying ip access-group NAME in under router interface Gi0/1 evaluates the named IPv4 ACL against matching packets as they enter that interface. This directly matches the request to reject unwanted traffic before it is forwarded toward the LAN. The ACL must first be defined with correct permit and deny ordering, and its implicit deny should be considered. Confirm the intended traffic enters Gi0/1 and verify hits on the deployed ACL rather than assuming interface direction from a diagram.
Incorrect Answers
A:switchport access vlan assigns a Layer 2 switchport to an access VLAN and does not attach a routed IPv4 access list to an ingress interface. It may be valid on a switching interface, but Gi0/1 here is a router-facing packet-filtering point. A VLAN assignment would not enforce the requested source/destination/protocol ACL conditions before route lookup.
C:An OSPF process command concerns dynamic route exchange, not application of an IPv4 packet-filtering ACL. The displayed syntax also does not correspond to the normal interface-level ip ospf PROCESS area AREA form. Routing adjacencies and interface ACLs solve different problems, so changing OSPF cannot express the requested ingress access policy.
D:ip access-group NAME out filters packets when they are transmitted out of Gi0/1 rather than when received there. This could be appropriate for policy affecting traffic egressing the interface, but the question explicitly specifies an ingress decision before forwarding toward another network. Applying the ACL in the wrong direction can fail to block the intended flows or unexpectedly block return traffic.
Question 605
An API returns {"gateway":null,"enabled":false}. What does null represent?
- The Boolean false value for the gateway member
- The gateway member has an explicit JSON null value
- An array of unspecified gateway objects
- The numeric address 0.0.0.0 encoded as an integer
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:In the supplied JSON object, gateway is present and its value is the literal null, which represents a null value rather than a string, number, Boolean or collection. The schema may use this to mean no gateway has been assigned, but that interpretation requires application documentation. A parser preserves the distinction between gateway:null, a missing gateway property and the separate enabled:false flag. Network automation should test these cases explicitly before applying settings.
Incorrect Answers
A:The JSON Boolean false appears separately as the value of enabled, whereas the gateway member is explicitly the different literal null. A program should not interpret null as a Boolean false unless its application schema deliberately defines such a conversion. Doing so could confuse absent configuration with a feature that is explicitly disabled.
C:A JSON array is denoted by square brackets and contains an ordered sequence of values; null alone is not an array of placeholder objects. If the API intended an empty list, it would normally return [], and an array with a null element would be [null]. Automation should honor the serialized type instead of assuming a collection exists.
D:The null token is not a numerical zero, a dotted-decimal IPv4 address or an encoded integer value. An actual gateway string could be 0.0.0.0 if the API schema permitted it, and a number would use numeric syntax. Treating null as a real IP address could lead to an invalid gateway configuration or misleading validation results.
Question 606
An administrator wants clients to renew dynamic IP leases rather than manually configure every address. What role does DHCP play?
- Elect STP root switches for the client VLAN
- Allocate and maintain leases of IP configuration according to configured scopes
- Run a separate OSPF process on each workstation
- Change the switchport native VLAN every time a lease renews
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A DHCP server selects available addresses from configured pools or scopes, supplies lease lifetimes and options, and tracks assignment state for clients. Hosts can renew leases according to DHCP timing instead of requiring static configuration on every workstation. Verify the correct scope, exclusions, address capacity, relay path where the server is remote and gateway/DNS options; DHCP is an IP configuration service, not a switchport VLAN manager. Lease renewal should not arbitrarily change a client's VLAN.
Incorrect Answers
A:Spanning Tree Protocol elects bridge roles to prevent Layer 2 loops, whereas DHCP allocates host network-configuration information. A switch can run STP while a separate DHCP server handles the VLAN's address leases, with no root-election role for the server. A root-bridge misconfiguration is not the requested mechanism for renewing client IPv4 addresses.
C:OSPF is a routing protocol between participating routers and is not required on individual client workstations to obtain or renew addresses. DHCP clients exchange discovery, request and renewal messages using DHCP rather than forming OSPF neighbor adjacencies. Running a routing protocol on every desktop would be needless and would not establish central lease management.
D:Native VLAN defines how untagged traffic is classified on an 802.1Q trunk. DHCP renewal occurs at the IP service layer within the client's existing LAN and does not need a native VLAN change each time a lease is extended. Changing trunk classification during renewal could disrupt unrelated traffic or create security segmentation errors.
Question 607
Two OSPF DROther routers on the same broadcast Ethernet segment show each other in 2-Way rather than FULL. The DR/BDR adjacencies are FULL. How should this be interpreted?
- Always a fatal OSPF area mismatch requiring immediate reconfiguration
- Confirmation that the two routers are both default gateways using HSRP
- Proof that their Layer 2 Ethernet links are administratively shut
- Normal DROther relationship on a broadcast multiaccess OSPF segment
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:On a broadcast multiaccess OSPF network, DROther peers commonly reach the bidirectional 2-Way state with one another without forming full database adjacencies. Each ordinarily forms FULL adjacency with the designated router and backup designated router to reduce unnecessary adjacency and flooding overhead. This state is healthy when the DR/BDR relationships are FULL and network type and timers agree. Inspect show ip ospf neighbor and the segment's elected roles before troubleshooting an expected 2-Way entry.
Incorrect Answers
A:A real OSPF area mismatch can prevent suitable neighbor relationships, but two DROther routers showing 2-Way on a healthy broadcast LAN is not evidence of that error. They have discovered each other while full database adjacency is generally maintained with the DR and BDR. Check actual interface types, states and DR/BDR identities before declaring a fatal topology mismatch.
B:HSRP provides a shared virtual default gateway to hosts and is independent of OSPF's broadcast-network DR/BDR roles. A pair of DROther OSPF routers in 2-Way state does not imply either has the active or standby HSRP role. Verify any gateway redundancy using the relevant HSRP status command, not an OSPF neighbor-state display.
C:Administratively shut Ethernet links cannot normally exchange OSPF Hello packets with one another, so reaching 2-Way already indicates successful bidirectional discovery on the segment. A down physical link would produce missing neighbor entries or adjacency timeouts rather than an intentional DROther-to-DROther 2-Way relationship. The reported FULL adjacencies to DR and BDR reinforce that interpretation.
Question 608
A business manages devices from a cloud portal and wants configuration changes tracked separately from data-plane forwarding. Which management design applies?
- Configure NAT to make every management user share one permanent identity
- Route device telemetry only through DNS MX records
- Cloud-managed controller or platform using authorized management APIs
- Replace every Ethernet uplink with an unmanaged hub
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A cloud-managed controller or authorized management platform can maintain desired configuration and push changes through device-facing APIs while network equipment continues forwarding user traffic in its data plane. The management plane should authenticate administrators, enforce least-privilege roles and record approvals and changes. Verify the platform's connectivity, permitted API scopes, device enrollment and audit history; central orchestration does not imply every user packet must traverse the cloud portal.
Incorrect Answers
A:NAT can translate source addresses at an edge, but collapsing administrators behind one public address does not supply individual authorization, policy approval or change attribution. A management platform still needs unique identities, role-based permissions and audit logs. Treating NAT as the management control plane would weaken accountability and not centralize device configuration safely.
B:DNS MX records identify mail exchange destinations for a domain and do not transport configuration commands or router telemetry to a cloud control platform. Monitoring commonly uses APIs, streaming telemetry or management protocols over IP. Creating MX entries would neither implement authenticated configuration updates nor separate management decisions from physical packet forwarding.
D:An unmanaged Ethernet hub repeats electrical traffic and lacks the policy, authentication, telemetry and API capabilities required for cloud-managed configuration. Replacing uplinks with hubs would introduce shared collision domains and remove modern switching benefits. Centralized management relies on compatible managed devices and secure control interfaces, not on a downgrade of forwarding hardware.
Question 609
A switch port is administratively disabled, but its cable and transceiver test fine. Which configuration state must change?
- Lower the remote router's OSPF cost
- Remove the administrative shutdown on the intended interface
- Replace all DHCP reservations for that VLAN
- Enable a different HTTP server port on the switch
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:An interface with administrative shutdown remains disabled regardless of good cable and transceiver tests. On Cisco IOS, enter the intended interface configuration context and apply no shutdown after confirming it is safe and authorized to place the link in service. Check show interfaces status or show ip interface brief afterward for operational up status and any remaining protocol conditions. The command removes the administrative block; it does not repair a separate physical fault.
Incorrect Answers
A:An OSPF cost adjustment changes routing preferences over an operational interface; it cannot enable a port that the operator has administratively shut down. The scenario rules out cable and transceiver failures and explicitly states a local disabled configuration. Resolve the administrative state before investigating learned route costs, which matter only once Layer 3 paths can operate.
C:DHCP reservations associate specific client identities with addresses and are unrelated to whether the switch interface has been disabled by configuration. Replacing them could disrupt hosts without restoring the physical port. A valid cable can still show down/down or administratively down until the local shutdown is removed, so address-service investigation is premature.
D:A switch HTTP server port controls management-plane web access and does not determine the administrative state of the Ethernet data interface. Changing the management listener might affect browser sessions but cannot make a shutdown port transmit frames. If the link remains down after no shutdown, then physical negotiation and port-security states become the next checks.
Question 610
A switch port has port security maximum 1 with violation action restrict. A second source MAC appears. What is the expected behavior?
- The router changes its OSPF default route to the new MAC
- The access port is always administratively shut down immediately
- The second MAC is automatically learned as secure with no limit
- Frames from the violating MAC are dropped and the violation can be logged/counted
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Under port-security violation mode restrict, frames sourced by an unauthorized second MAC are dropped while the interface normally stays operational for the allowed secure MAC. The switch can increment violation counters and generate logging or SNMP notifications according to support and configuration. This differs from protect, which drops without equivalent reporting on many platforms, and from shutdown, which error-disables the port. Verify the configured maximum, learned secure MAC and violation statistics rather than expecting an immediate shutdown.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF default-route changes depend on Layer 3 routing information and policy, not the appearance of a second source MAC on an access switchport. Port security handles learned or configured MAC identities at Layer 2. A violation can suppress traffic from the unauthorized source without modifying any router routing-table entries.
B:Immediate error-disable or shutdown is characteristic of the shutdown port-security violation mode on many Cisco switches, not the requested restrict mode. With restrict, the port can continue carrying traffic from permitted secure addresses while rejecting violating frames. Inspect the configured violation action before concluding the entire interface must go administratively down.
C:With switchport port-security maximum 1, the port cannot accept and learn a second distinct source MAC as another authorized secure address simply because frames arrive. Dynamic secure learning is still limited by the configured maximum. If an extra MAC must legitimately connect, the operator must deliberately revise the policy and consider the port's intended endpoint topology.