Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 39
Question 380
R1 has a backup static route 192.168.80.0/24 via 10.0.0.6 with AD 190, but the active route to that /24 uses OSPF. Which THREE changes could make the floating static eligible for installation? Choose THREE.
- The primary OSPF route to 192.168.80.0/24 is withdrawn
- The primary OSPF path stays healthy and its distance remains 110
- The OSPF route becomes ineligible because its next hop or underlying route is no longer resolvable
- The default route is renamed with a different label but the OSPF /24 stays active
- A lower metric is assigned to the static route while its AD remains 190 and OSPF stays 110
- The administrator deliberately raises the OSPF administrative distance above 190 for this destination/source
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:A floating static route is designed with a higher administrative distance so it loses to a preferred routing source while that source remains eligible. If the OSPF route to the same /24 disappears, the static route can become the best remaining candidate, provided its next hop 10.0.0.6 resolves. This is the intended backup behavior rather than equal-cost load balancing.
C:If the OSPF entry becomes ineligible because its next hop or prerequisite reachability fails, it may no longer be installed for the /24. The higher-distance floating static can then be considered, assuming its own next hop is reachable and no better route remains. Failure handling depends on the platform's route-resolution and protocol behavior, but absence of the primary is a legitimate trigger for backup selection.
F:An administrator can deliberately alter administrative-distance policy so the OSPF path for that prefix is less preferred than the static candidate, for example by raising the relevant OSPF distance above 190 when supported. In that situation the floating static may install without a physical OSPF failure, assuming its own next hop resolves. This is a policy-induced change rather than the normal backup trigger; it should be controlled carefully to avoid unintentionally preferring stale static routes.
Incorrect Answers
B:A healthy OSPF route with distance 110 remains preferred over a static candidate with distance 190 for the same destination prefix. Keeping every route and preference unchanged would leave the backup static out of active forwarding. Different metrics within OSPF do not alter the basic comparison to an unrelated floating route's higher administrative distance.
D:Renaming or re-labeling an unrelated default route does not affect the installed OSPF /24 route's preference or eligibility. The router still chooses the longest matching destination prefix first, and the healthy OSPF route remains a better same-prefix candidate than the floating static. A management label change cannot create the specified primary failure condition.
E:A static route's metric is not the preference control that ordinarily makes it win against OSPF for the same prefix. With distance 190 on the floating static and distance 110 on OSPF, administrative distance selects OSPF first when both are eligible. Assigning a lower unspecified metric to the static line without changing distance or primary validity does not reverse that source preference.
Question 381
A VLAN 30 host is reachable from other VLANs through its multilayer switch but stops reaching off-subnet destinations when its gateway is changed to the VLAN 40 SVI address. Why is this change invalid?
- The VLAN 40 SVI belongs to a different IP subnet, so it is not an on-link first hop for the VLAN 30 host
- An SVI cannot route traffic outside its own VLAN
- A switch SVI can never serve as a host gateway
- The host must use the Ethernet broadcast address as its gateway
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A VLAN 30 host must resolve its default gateway as an on-link IPv4 neighbor within its own subnet and broadcast domain. The VLAN 40 SVI has an address in a different IP network, so the host cannot normally ARP directly for it as its local first hop. Even though the multilayer switch can route between both VLANs, the client should use the operational VLAN 30 SVI address. The changed gateway setting defeats that required local adjacency.
Incorrect Answers
B:A routed switched virtual interface can forward packets between its VLAN subnet and other destinations when the multilayer switch has IP routing and usable routes enabled. The problem is not an inherent restriction that an SVI can never route beyond its attached VLAN. The original VLAN 30 gateway successfully supported off-subnet communication. Changing the client to a different SVI broke local first-hop reachability, which is a host addressing issue.
C:Layer 3-capable switches routinely provide host default gateways through VLAN SVIs, allowing inter-VLAN routing without an external router-on-a-stick. The scenario explicitly confirms that VLAN 30 could reach other VLANs through its multilayer switch before the gateway was changed. That evidence disproves a universal ban on SVI gateways. The client must select its own directly attached VLAN 30 gateway rather than an SVI belonging to another subnet.
D:Ethernet broadcast addresses, such as ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, are used for local frame delivery to all eligible peers, not as stable unicast IPv4 default gateways. A host needs an IP address assigned to a reachable router or SVI on its attached subnet. Trying to designate a broadcast address as gateway would not provide a routable next hop. The error comes from choosing VLAN 40's off-subnet SVI rather than the VLAN 30 gateway.
Question 382
Two directly connected routers in the same OSPF area were manually configured with identical router IDs 7.7.7.7. What is the fundamental problem?
- A router ID must always equal the physical interface MAC address
- Identical router IDs are mandatory for neighboring routers to accept each other
- The duplicate router IDs violate OSPF identity uniqueness and can prevent healthy adjacencies
- OSPF always chooses the lower interface MTU as router ID to resolve the duplication
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:OSPF depends on unique router IDs to identify participants and their link-state advertisements. Two connected routers configured with the same ID 7.7.7.7 cannot be distinguished reliably in protocol exchange, creating serious adjacency and database integrity problems. Assign a different stable ID to each router and restart affected OSPF processes as needed, then verify neighbor state. The requirement is uniqueness, not matching the routers' physical interface or MAC values.
Incorrect Answers
A:An OSPF router ID is a 32-bit protocol identity traditionally displayed in dotted-decimal form, not a physical Ethernet MAC address. A router can explicitly configure a stable ID independent of its current interface IPs, and MAC addresses are not substituted for that field. The scenario already identifies the actual problem: both routers use 7.7.7.7. Correct the duplicate identities rather than trying to equate the router ID with physical interface hardware.
B:OSPF neighbors should have unique router identifiers within the relevant routing domain, not identical ones. The ID distinguishes speakers in link-state advertisements and neighbor relationships. Reusing 7.7.7.7 on directly connected routers makes their identities ambiguous and can prevent reliable adjacency or database operation. Sharing the same area number and compatible hello timers is necessary for adjacency, but that compatibility does not require duplicate router IDs.
D:Interface MTU can affect OSPF database description exchange, and mismatched MTUs may stall adjacency at EXSTART or EXCHANGE on some platforms. It does not cause OSPF to choose an interface MTU as a replacement router ID. The ID is selected from explicit router-id configuration or eligible IPv4 addresses. Here the conflict is that both routers already have the same manually assigned ID; changing MTU would not resolve that identity collision.
Question 383
A point-to-point IPv4 routed link is assigned the subnet 192.0.2.200/30. Which pair can be assigned as the conventional unicast addresses of its two router interfaces?
- 192.0.2.200 and 192.0.2.201
- 192.0.2.201 and 192.0.2.202
- 192.0.2.202 and 192.0.2.203
- 192.0.2.199 and 192.0.2.200
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A conventional IPv4 /30 leaves two host bits, creating four addresses per subnet. The block 192.0.2.200/30 spans.200 through.203, with.200 the network address and.203 the broadcast. The two router interfaces can therefore use 192.0.2.201 and 192.0.2.202. Both belong to the same on-link prefix, permitting normal point-to-point Ethernet forwarding. This demonstrates host address allocation rather than merely recognizing a subnet mask.
Incorrect Answers
A:The /30 subnet 192.0.2.200/30 contains four addresses, but the first value.200 is its conventional network identifier rather than an ordinary usable router interface address. Pairing.200 with.201 would include a reserved value. The two assignable unicast addresses are the middle values.201 and.202. This assumes the conventional /30 model specified, not special /31 point-to-point addressing.
C:Address 192.0.2.202 is one of the two valid unicast hosts in the stated /30, but.203 is the conventional directed broadcast address of that block. The pair therefore cannot be assigned to two router interfaces under the subnetting model in the question. The last address cannot be treated as ordinary unicast merely because it is adjacent to a valid host. Use.201 and.202.
D:The address.199 is at the end of the preceding 192.0.2.196/30 block, while.200 begins the requested 192.0.2.200/30 as its network identifier. Neither creates the two assignable endpoints for the specified link. An on-link pair should both be conventional hosts of one subnet. The correct usable middle addresses in the stated block are.201 and.202, not the boundary addresses of neighboring networks.
Question 384
A firewall policy uses a numbered IPv4 ACL 101. Which command most directly displays its ACEs and commonly their packet-match counts on Cisco IOS?
show access-lists 101show vlan briefshow etherchannel summaryshow ntp status
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The operational Cisco IOS command show access-lists 101 displays the entries in numbered IPv4 ACL 101, including match counters where available and applicable. Administrators can inspect ACE order, source/destination conditions and whether test traffic increments expected permit or deny entries. Counter behavior can vary with hardware forwarding and platform implementation, so corroborate with traffic testing. This is the focused command for examining the specific ACL rather than interface VLAN, EtherChannel or time synchronization state.
Incorrect Answers
B:show vlan brief summarizes VLAN definitions and many access-port memberships on a switch. It cannot display the ordered access-control entries of numbered IPv4 ACL 101 or their matching packet counts. VLAN assignment may determine where a policy is applied, but a VLAN inventory does not prove which ACE is filtering traffic. Inspect the ACL itself and its interface application to answer the policy-review requirement.
C:show etherchannel summary reports logical link aggregation groups and members, including whether physical interfaces are bundled. It does not list the ACEs in an IPv4 security policy or their hit statistics. An EtherChannel can carry packets subject to an ACL elsewhere, but its status output is not a policy ledger. Use an ACL-focused command first, then examine port-channel operation only if forwarding or aggregation symptoms warrant it.
D:show ntp status examines clock synchronization and NTP state on supported Cisco IOS devices. Accurate time can aid security event correlation, but it does not reveal what traffic ACL 101 permits or denies. The question asks for current policy entries and match counts, not timestamp health. Reading NTP output might improve audit chronology yet cannot replace show access-lists 101 for direct ACE inspection.
Question 385
Which THREE statements about standard REST-style management APIs are correct? Choose THREE.
- GET is normally used to retrieve a resource representation
- DELETE is the conventional method for creating a new collection member
- JSON can carry structured request or response representations
- HTTP status 401 always proves the device lost physical network connectivity
- Every REST API must accept anonymous write requests
- An appropriate token or other documented authentication mechanism can protect API access
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:HTTP GET is conventionally used to request a representation of a resource without intending to modify its state. A controller API might return device inventory, port configuration or policy status through GET when the caller is authorized. That makes it appropriate for read-only observation. Responses still need schema validation and error handling, but the method's ordinary semantics distinguish it from POST, PATCH and DELETE operations that can change server state.
C:JSON can represent nested objects, arrays, numbers, booleans, strings and null values in controller API request and response bodies. Clients can parse these structured representations according to documented schemas to send configuration intent or read inventory. JSON's presence does not itself guarantee authorization or technical validity, but it is a widely supported representation format for REST-style management. The statement is valid without asserting that every API operation must use JSON.
F:A documented API authentication scheme, such as scoped bearer tokens, mutual TLS or another supported credential mechanism, can protect controller operations by validating callers and limiting their privileges. Clients should store secrets securely and use TLS as appropriate. Authentication alone does not authorize every action, so role and scope checks still matter. The statement correctly notes that secure access can depend on the vendor's selected and documented authentication method.
Incorrect Answers
B:HTTP DELETE conventionally requests removal of the resource identified by its URI, not creation of a new collection member. A POST to an appropriate collection endpoint is a common way to ask a server to create a child resource. The exact contract can differ among vendor APIs, but basic REST-style semantics make DELETE the wrong creation method. Misusing it could remove existing configuration rather than add the intended managed object.
D:HTTP status 401 normally indicates that authentication is required or that supplied credentials were not accepted. It does not by itself prove a physical Ethernet link is down or that IP connectivity was lost. In fact, receiving a structured HTTP 401 commonly confirms enough network and server reachability for the application to return an error. Diagnose the authentication scheme and token first, instead of treating this status as proof of a Layer 1 failure.
E:REST-style APIs often enforce authentication, authorization, rate limits and least-privilege write permissions. There is no universal requirement to accept anonymous configuration-changing requests. Such open writes would be unsafe for a network controller managing device policies. A deployment might deliberately expose limited public read endpoints, but that differs from unrestricted configuration mutation. Consult the documented access model and provide approved credentials and roles.
Question 386
The requirement is for 100 internal workstations to share one permitted public IPv4 address while preserving concurrent transport sessions. Which IOS keyword distinguishes this NAT configuration from ordinary pool-based dynamic translation?
loggingoverloadpassive-interfaceip address dhcp
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The IOS NAT keyword overload permits Port Address Translation, allowing multiple inside-local hosts to share a permitted inside-global IPv4 address by distinguishing concurrent sessions through transport port and protocol mapping when applicable. With only one public address, ordinary one-to-one dynamic pool translation would not provide enough simultaneous identities for 100 active clients. Configure appropriate inside/outside roles and classification policy, then verify translations and available port capacity.
Incorrect Answers
A:logging relates to system event collection and diagnostic output rather than how one public IPv4 address is shared among many internal NAT sessions. Logging may help audit translations or connectivity, but it does not instruct IOS to multiplex separate source ports on a shared inside-global address. The stem specifically requires 100 clients to preserve concurrent conversations through one public IP. That behavior depends on PAT overload, not event recording.
C:passive-interface is used with routing protocols to control neighbor formation or advertisement behavior on an interface. It does not enable source-port multiplexing for IPv4 translation and has no direct relationship to how many inside clients can share a single public address. The network might configure passive interfaces for security while also using NAT, but that does not satisfy the overload requirement. Examine NAT-specific source translation syntax instead.
D:ip address dhcp configures a router interface to obtain its own IPv4 address dynamically from a DHCP server on supported IOS interfaces. It does not by itself translate addresses or allow a hundred internal hosts to share one public identity. DHCP might be how the edge acquires its WAN address, but separate NAT policy is still needed for client traffic. The word that distinguishes PAT from simple dynamic translation is overload.
Question 387
A router has a static route for prefix 198.51.100.0/24 and an unrelated default route. After an operator types no ip route 198.51.100.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2, what happens to that specific configured static entry?
- The command installs a second static route with the same parameters
- It deletes the matching configured static route statement
- It disables all Layer 3 interfaces on the router
- It converts the route into a directly connected prefix
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:In Cisco IOS configuration mode, no ip route followed by the matching destination, mask and next-hop fields removes that specific static route configuration. If it was installed, the routing table will be recalculated using any remaining alternatives, such as another static or the default route. Confirm the exact route disappears from running configuration and operational output. The command affects the specified entry rather than all routing or interface state.
Incorrect Answers
A:The no form of an exact Cisco IOS configuration command generally removes the matching statement rather than adding another copy. Therefore no ip route 198.51.100.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 does not install a second route toward that destination. Static route creation omits the leading no. If another valid route remains, the router may still reach the prefix; removal of one configured static entry is not the same as deleting all reachability.
C:Removing one static route statement does not disable every Layer 3 interface on the router. Interfaces remain governed by their own administrative and physical states, and unrelated connected or learned routes can remain installed. The effect is scoped to the matching prefix and next hop in the configuration command. Claiming a global shutdown would confuse route-table modification with interface configuration and unnecessarily exaggerate the operational consequence.
D:A directly connected route is normally created by an active router interface assigned an address in the destination network, not by deleting a static route. The no ip route operation can remove the static entry but cannot manufacture a new connected prefix or interface address. If an actual connected route already exists, it may be selected separately. The stated command itself is a deletion, not a conversion of route-source codes.
Question 388
A non-root switch has equal total root path cost through two candidate ports. Their upstream neighbors have different sender Bridge IDs, but other decision inputs are otherwise equal. Which link wins the root-port tie at this stage?
- The link to the upstream switch with higher Bridge ID
- The link to the upstream switch with lower Bridge ID
- The cable that was physically connected last
- The port with the highest local interface number regardless of upstream ID
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:When a non-root switch has equal total root path cost through two candidate links, spanning-tree compares subsequent BPDU fields, including the sender's Bridge ID. At the stated tie-break stage, the neighbor advertising the lower Bridge ID is preferred for the root-port selection, assuming other preceding parameters are equal. A lower numerical bridge identity is more preferred under STP ordering. Port IDs and local port numbers may matter only at later tie-break stages.
Incorrect Answers
A:In spanning-tree tie resolution, lower numerical Bridge ID values are preferred when comparing the relevant upstream sender IDs after equal root path cost and other preceding fields. A higher sender Bridge ID represents a less preferred upstream candidate, not a winning tie-break. The stem explicitly states that equal total cost and other inputs have been resolved to this comparison. Choose the link to the lower sender Bridge ID rather than reversing the ordering rule.
C:The physical time at which a cable was plugged in is not the protocol's deterministic root-port tie-break for equal-cost paths. STP evaluates received BPDU information and port identifiers according to a defined ordering so topology decisions converge consistently. A recently inserted link can become preferred if its path attributes are better, but not simply because it arrived last. The question supplies different upstream Bridge IDs, which determine the decision at this stage.
D:Local interface numbering can serve as a later tie-break when earlier STP comparison fields remain equal, but it does not override a different upstream sender Bridge ID at the stage described. In general lower rather than highest relevant port IDs win later comparisons, depending on the exact field. The question specifies different neighbor Bridge IDs with equal cost. The lower upstream Bridge ID is the decisive value, not the largest local port number.
Question 389
An engineer is validating IPv4 network IDs derived from interface addresses. Which TWO statements identify the correct containing subnet? Choose TWO.
- 10.40.18.78/28 belongs to 10.40.18.64/28
- 10.40.18.46/27 belongs to 10.40.18.64/27
- 10.40.18.133/26 belongs to 10.40.18.64/26
- 10.40.18.197/29 belongs to 10.40.18.200/29
- 10.40.18.46/27 belongs to 10.40.18.32/27
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:A /28 prefix spans 16 addresses in the final octet. Host 10.40.18.78 falls in the interval 10.40.18.64 through.79, so clearing its four host bits yields network ID 10.40.18.64/28. This statement correctly matches the host to the containing subnet. The block boundaries, not a presumed gateway address, determine the route's connected network identifier.
E:The /27 network containing host 10.40.18.46 begins at 10.40.18.32 and ends at 10.40.18.63. Its usable conventional hosts lie between.33 and.62, so.46 is a valid member. The statement correctly identifies network ID 10.40.18.32/27. It complements the separate /28 calculation in option A; the other offered pairings cross their actual subnet boundaries.
Incorrect Answers
B:A /27 mask creates 32-address last-octet blocks, including.0–.31,.32–.63 and.64–.95. Address 10.40.18.46 lies in.32–.63, so its network is 10.40.18.32/27 rather than.64/27. The offered pairing shifts the host into the next subnet. Prefix membership can be determined by clearing the five host bits of the original address.
C:For a /26, the final octet has 64-address blocks:.0–.63,.64–.127,.128–.191 and.192–.255. Host 10.40.18.133 belongs to.128–.191, not to the.64–.127 block. Its proper containing network is 10.40.18.128/26. The distractor uses the right prefix length but the wrong network boundary, which is why it fails the requested subnet identification test.
D:A /29 has eight addresses per block, so host.197 falls in the.192–.199 range, whose network ID is 10.40.18.192/29. The proposed 10.40.18.200/29 starts the next eight-address interval. Address proximity is insufficient; the host bits must be cleared under the stated prefix. This pairing would assign the endpoint to a subnet it does not actually occupy.
Question 390
Which THREE decisions align with a secure switch access-port design for an ordinary DHCP-assigned desktop, given a trusted server uplink? Choose THREE.
- Keep the desktop-facing port untrusted for DHCP snooping
- Trust the desktop port for DAI regardless of whether its bindings are valid
- Use the DHCP snooping binding table to support DAI validation
- Disable all port-security limits because port security is incompatible with DHCP
- Limit the accepted secure MAC addresses to the endpoint design requirement
- Configure the uplink as an unknown untrusted edge port without reviewing the DHCP server path
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:An ordinary desktop access port should remain untrusted for DHCP snooping so that unsolicited DHCP server responses arriving from that edge cannot impersonate the authorized address allocator. Trusted status belongs only on reviewed paths toward the legitimate server or relay, not automatically on end-user interfaces. The desktop can still send DHCP client requests through the switch. This setting narrows rogue DHCP risk without blocking normal lease acquisition when the uplink is configured correctly.
C:DHCP snooping records bindings that associate a client IP address with relevant MAC address, VLAN and interface context after legitimate lease processing. Dynamic ARP Inspection can consult those bindings on untrusted ports to reject forged ARP sender information while allowing expected endpoint announcements. Ensure snooping is active on the appropriate VLAN and trust the correct server-facing path. Static-address hosts may require documented exceptions or other configured validation rules.
E:A secure MAC limit matched to the endpoint design helps prevent one ordinary desktop port from becoming an unauthorized multi-host attachment. A single workstation may justify a small limit, while a phone-and-PC arrangement may need more. Configure port-security violation behavior appropriately and document expected moves or replacements. This complements DHCP snooping and DAI rather than replacing them, and it should be validated without disrupting authorized endpoint changes.
Incorrect Answers
B:Trusting every desktop access port for Dynamic ARP Inspection would bypass validation of ARP messages coming from a potentially compromised endpoint. DAI trust should be limited to carefully designated infrastructure paths, while ordinary client ports remain untrusted and use binding or explicit validation rules. The question assumes a known trusted server uplink and DHCP-assigned clients, making universal desktop DAI trust an unnecessary security gap. Validate the bindings rather than disable checking.
D:Port security can coexist with DHCP address assignment: one feature constrains accepted source MAC identities, while the other allocates IPv4 addresses and can feed snooping bindings. Disabling secure MAC limits universally would discard useful edge protection without helping an ordinary DHCP desktop obtain a lease. Administrators should choose sensible limits for the number of expected devices and account for phones or downstream bridges where present. Compatibility requires deliberate policy, not complete removal.
F:The path toward the legitimate DHCP server or approved relay may need trusted DHCP snooping status so server replies can return to client ports. Treating every infrastructure uplink as an unknown untrusted edge without examining its role can discard legitimate DHCPOFFER or ACK responses. Trust should not be universal either; administrators need to verify the actual server topology. This option rejects that validation and can break DHCP for the desktop network.