Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 40
Question 390
Which THREE decisions align with a secure switch access-port design for an ordinary DHCP-assigned desktop, given a trusted server uplink? Choose THREE.
- Keep the desktop-facing port untrusted for DHCP snooping
- Trust the desktop port for DAI regardless of whether its bindings are valid
- Use the DHCP snooping binding table to support DAI validation
- Disable all port-security limits because port security is incompatible with DHCP
- Limit the accepted secure MAC addresses to the endpoint design requirement
- Configure the uplink as an unknown untrusted edge port without reviewing the DHCP server path
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:An ordinary desktop access port should remain untrusted for DHCP snooping so that unsolicited DHCP server responses arriving from that edge cannot impersonate the authorized address allocator. Trusted status belongs only on reviewed paths toward the legitimate server or relay, not automatically on end-user interfaces. The desktop can still send DHCP client requests through the switch. This setting narrows rogue DHCP risk without blocking normal lease acquisition when the uplink is configured correctly.
C:DHCP snooping records bindings that associate a client IP address with relevant MAC address, VLAN and interface context after legitimate lease processing. Dynamic ARP Inspection can consult those bindings on untrusted ports to reject forged ARP sender information while allowing expected endpoint announcements. Ensure snooping is active on the appropriate VLAN and trust the correct server-facing path. Static-address hosts may require documented exceptions or other configured validation rules.
E:A secure MAC limit matched to the endpoint design helps prevent one ordinary desktop port from becoming an unauthorized multi-host attachment. A single workstation may justify a small limit, while a phone-and-PC arrangement may need more. Configure port-security violation behavior appropriately and document expected moves or replacements. This complements DHCP snooping and DAI rather than replacing them, and it should be validated without disrupting authorized endpoint changes.
Incorrect Answers
B:Trusting every desktop access port for Dynamic ARP Inspection would bypass validation of ARP messages coming from a potentially compromised endpoint. DAI trust should be limited to carefully designated infrastructure paths, while ordinary client ports remain untrusted and use binding or explicit validation rules. The question assumes a known trusted server uplink and DHCP-assigned clients, making universal desktop DAI trust an unnecessary security gap. Validate the bindings rather than disable checking.
D:Port security can coexist with DHCP address assignment: one feature constrains accepted source MAC identities, while the other allocates IPv4 addresses and can feed snooping bindings. Disabling secure MAC limits universally would discard useful edge protection without helping an ordinary DHCP desktop obtain a lease. Administrators should choose sensible limits for the number of expected devices and account for phones or downstream bridges where present. Compatibility requires deliberate policy, not complete removal.
F:The path toward the legitimate DHCP server or approved relay may need trusted DHCP snooping status so server replies can return to client ports. Treating every infrastructure uplink as an unknown untrusted edge without examining its role can discard legitimate DHCPOFFER or ACK responses. Trust should not be universal either; administrators need to verify the actual server topology. This option rejects that validation and can break DHCP for the desktop network.
Question 391
R1 and R2 are configured for the same OSPFv2 area, IPv4 subnet and hello/dead timers on an Ethernet link but their neighbor relationship stalls during database exchange at EXSTART/EXCHANGE. The link MTUs differ. What should be investigated?
- OSPF router IDs must be changed to match exactly
- Switchport native VLANs must be changed to 4094 regardless of topology
- All routers must be configured as DRs simultaneously
- Align the effective interface MTU or diagnose MTU checking during OSPF database exchange
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:OSPF exchanges database-description packets during the EXSTART and EXCHANGE states, and those packets can carry interface MTU information that peers validate. If R1 and R2 advertise inconsistent effective MTUs, one side may reject a DBD and the adjacency can stall before reaching FULL. Compare interface MTU configuration and captured/logged DBD values, then align compatible MTUs where feasible. An mtu-ignore workaround on supported platforms should be considered cautiously because it does not repair underlying data-plane packet-size incompatibility.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF router IDs must be unique for distinct neighbors, not identical. Assigning matching IDs would introduce a separate identity collision and could prevent the routers from distinguishing each other's LSAs. The current symptoms occur in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE database-description phase with different interface MTUs, which points to a packet-size compatibility check rather than a need to duplicate routing identities.
B:A trunk native VLAN determines classification of untagged Layer 2 frames; it is not an arbitrary fix for an OSPF database-description mismatch on a correctly connected routed link. Changing native VLAN to 4094 without evidence could even break connectivity. Since basic OSPF parameters match and the explicit discrepancy is MTU, investigate the control-plane packet exchange before adjusting unrelated VLAN policy.
C:On an OSPF broadcast network, the protocol elects one designated router and one backup designated router, with other eligible neighbors remaining DRother roles. Configuring every router to be DR simultaneously is neither normal nor required for adjacency. The observed EXSTART/EXCHANGE stall is more closely associated with differing DBD packet expectations, including MTU, than with a blanket requirement for all devices to claim the same role.
Question 392
Two workstations use addresses from 192.0.2.0/24 but are plugged into separate access VLANs 15 and 25. The trunk between switches carries both VLANs. Why will their normal IPv4 ARP requests not reach each other?
- They require matching CDP neighbor advertisements to bridge their ARP requests
- The native VLAN must always be set to VLAN 4094 for two workstations in the same subnet
- They must change subnet masks before Ethernet frames can cross any switch
- Their access ports are in different VLAN broadcast domains, so ARP broadcasts remain separated
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:An access switch classifies untagged host frames into the VLAN configured on each client-facing port. VLAN 15 ARP broadcasts are flooded only within VLAN 15, while VLAN 25 broadcasts remain in VLAN 25, even when the interswitch trunk carries both. Thus sharing one IPv4 /24 does not imply Layer 2 adjacency across the VLAN boundary. Place clients in the intended common VLAN for direct ARP, or redesign their IP subnets and routing if separation is desired.
Incorrect Answers
A:CDP carries neighbor device information between supported directly attached Cisco systems; it does not decide whether two Ethernet access ports belong to the same VLAN. ARP requests are Layer 2 broadcasts constrained to their VLAN broadcast domain. Adding or modifying CDP messages cannot bridge VLAN 15 to VLAN 25 and would not solve the actual separation.
B:The native VLAN on a trunk governs handling of untagged frames, not whether stations in distinct access VLANs share the same broadcast domain. Assigning native VLAN 4094 by policy does not automatically merge VLAN 15 and VLAN 25 or make their ARP broadcasts cross between them. Proper VLAN membership and routing design determine their communication path.
C:The two workstations use addresses within the same /24, so the immediate issue is not simply a mask mismatch. Their physical ports belong to different VLAN broadcast domains, which prevent ordinary ARP frames from reaching one another even though both addresses are in the same subnet. Changing masks alone cannot bridge those Layer 2 boundaries; the VLAN design must be reconciled or a valid routed architecture planned.
Question 393
A router interface uses address 192.0.2.77/26 in a conventional IPv4 subnet. Which THREE statements about this subnet are correct? Choose THREE.
- Its subnet network address is 192.0.2.64
- Its directed broadcast address is 192.0.2.63
- Its last usable host is 192.0.2.127
- Its directed broadcast address is 192.0.2.127
- It provides 62 conventional usable host addresses
- It provides 30 conventional usable host addresses
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:A /26 uses six host bits, so each subnet comprises 64 IPv4 addresses. The host 192.0.2.77 falls in the block beginning at.64 and ending at.127, making 192.0.2.64 the network identifier. The lower endpoint contains all zero host bits and is not an ordinary unicast host. This correctly derives the prefix containing the routed interface.
D:The address 192.0.2.127 has all six /26 host bits set, so it is the directed broadcast for the 192.0.2.64/26 network. Since the router interface is.77, this is the correct upper endpoint of its subnet. Other entries may be in different /26 blocks, but the mask fixes the applicable broadcast regardless of which hosts are currently active.
E:A /26 contains 2^6, or 64, total IPv4 addresses. Under ordinary network-and-broadcast reservations, subtracting those two leaves 62 conventional usable host addresses, from.65 through.126 for the containing block. This calculation is separate from the number of devices actually connected and from whether the network supports unusual point-to-point address conventions. The question explicitly assumes conventional /26 subnetting, not a special-use /31 endpoint scheme.
Incorrect Answers
B:Address 192.0.2.63 is the broadcast of the preceding /26 interval ending at.63, not the network containing.77. A /26 block beginning at.64 extends through.127. Picking the previous block's high endpoint ignores the host's actual /26 membership and would lead to incorrect address-plan documentation.
C:The highest address in a conventional /26 block is the directed broadcast, not an ordinary usable host. In the.64–.127 interval containing.77,.127 is reserved as broadcast while.126 is the final conventional host. Describing.127 as last usable conflates numeric maximum with assignable unicast capacity.
F:A conventional /27 has five host bits and therefore 30 usable IPv4 hosts; this interface uses a /26 with six host bits. Applying the /27 host count to a /26 would understate the capacity by half. Convert the prefix first, then count total block addresses and subtract the two conventional reservations.
Question 394
A remotely connected branch advertises no dynamic routes. The enterprise edge must choose between an IPv4 static host route and an IPv4 static default route. Which TWO statements are correct? Choose TWO.
- A 255.255.255.255 mask defines a static host route
- A 0.0.0.0 mask defines only a single destination host
- The host route is always ignored when any default route exists
- A 0.0.0.0 mask denotes the IPv4 default route
- The two routes must have the same next hop by design
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:A static IPv4 route whose destination netmask is 255.255.255.255 represents a /32 host route, matching one exact destination address. This is suitable when a single branch endpoint needs explicit reachability or special next-hop selection. It is more specific than the /0 default and will normally be chosen for that particular host when installed, assuming no stronger policy overrides ordinary destination-based lookup.
D:An IPv4 static route to destination 0.0.0.0 using mask 0.0.0.0 represents 0.0.0.0/0, the default route. It matches all IPv4 destinations as a fallback when no longer installed prefix applies. It can share a routing table with host and subnet static routes, each selected by destination specificity. Proper next-hop resolution is still required for the default to install and forward successfully.
Incorrect Answers
B:The all-zero mask 0.0.0.0 has zero network bits and defines the broadest possible IPv4 destination prefix, not a single host. A /32 host route uses the opposite all-ones mask. Treating /0 as a host restriction reverses the specificity rule and would misroute destinations that lack more-specific paths.
C:When a /32 host route and a /0 default are both installed and match the same destination, the /32 is normally preferred by longest-prefix matching. A default route is the last-resort fallback, not an overriding entry. The existence of a default does not invalidate a more-specific host route; the static statements may even have different next hops for operational reasons.
E:A host-specific route may point to a specialized next hop while the default sends other traffic through the site's ordinary WAN gateway. Routing policy does not inherently require their next hops to be identical. The decision should follow topology and destination reachability, not a supposed static route rule that every prefix must share a gateway address.
Question 395
A controller returns JSON with Content-Type: application/json, but a script treats the body as free-form CLI text and fails. What change is most appropriate?
- Disable TLS certificate validation permanently so the payload becomes CLI text
- Assume every JSON field is a Cisco configuration command
- Send the response body straight to the VTY console without parsing
- Parse the JSON object according to the documented response schema
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A Content-Type: application/json response indicates that the payload should be parsed as JSON rather than free-form CLI output. The client should deserialize it, validate expected object/array types and field names against the documented API schema, and use those values in the appropriate business logic. This fixes the script's structural mismatch without weakening TLS or guessing at device commands. Handle malformed payloads and API errors separately, because valid JSON alone does not guarantee successful resource retrieval.
Incorrect Answers
A:TLS certificate validation authenticates the remote HTTPS endpoint and helps prevent interception or redirection of management API traffic. Disabling it would weaken transport security and would not change the response body's declared JSON data format into CLI commands. The issue is a parsing assumption, so undermining certificate checks is both irrelevant and a security regression.
B:JSON keys and values represent structured data according to the API schema; they are not necessarily strings that can be pasted into an IOS configuration terminal. A field may describe interface status, a numeric counter, or a nested object rather than a command. Assuming all entries are CLI statements discards the API's data model and risks invalid or destructive automation behavior.
C:Sending an unparsed JSON response directly to a VTY session mixes data retrieval with configuration execution. IOS CLI does not accept arbitrary JSON objects as native commands on ordinary terminal lines. Even if some string fields resemble commands, executing them without validation could change device state unexpectedly. The script should parse and interpret the payload before deciding whether any action is needed.
Question 396
A Cisco IOS router defines ip nat pool EDGE 203.0.113.97 203.0.113.102 netmask 255.255.255.248 for inside-source NAT. Which interpretation is correct?
- It creates permanent static translations for every device in 192.168.0.0/24
- It assigns address 203.0.113.97/29 to the WAN physical interface automatically
- It defines six usable candidate global addresses in 203.0.113.96/29; an inside-source rule must reference pool EDGE
- It activates port overload for all inside hosts without another NAT policy
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:The named NAT pool EDGE spans six explicit global addresses, 203.0.113.97 through 203.0.113.102, all within the 203.0.113.96/29 block's conventional usable range. The command defines available translation candidates but does not activate address translation by itself. An ip nat inside source list ... pool EDGE rule or another suitable inside-source policy must reference that pool, and inside/outside roles must be configured. The precise number of simultaneous translations depends on how the active rule uses those addresses.
Incorrect Answers
A:A NAT pool declares a range of possible inside-global addresses but does not permanently bind every internal host to a particular external IP. Static mappings use explicit inside-source static commands and require the intended local/global pair. A pool alone neither references 192.168.0.0/24 nor determines which hosts may be translated; an additional policy is required.
B:The pool statement does not assign 203.0.113.97/29 as the physical WAN interface's own address. Pool addresses can be used as translations independently of the interface address when network routing and topology support them. Assigning a WAN interface IP requires separate interface configuration, and the pool range does not perform that step automatically.
D:PAT overload is enabled through an inside-source NAT policy using the overload keyword, not automatically by merely defining a pool of addresses. Without a rule that references EDGE and selects inside-local traffic, the six candidate addresses may remain unused. A pool's presence is a resource definition; NAT behavior requires a translation policy and active matching packets.
Question 397
A campus applies an extended inbound ACL with three ACEs: (10) deny TCP from 10.10.10.0/24 to 203.0.113.40 port 22; (20) permit TCP from the same subnet to that host port 443; (30) permit IP any any. Which THREE packet outcomes follow? Choose THREE.
- SSH from 10.10.10.8 to 203.0.113.40 destination port 22 is denied by ACE 10
- HTTPS from 10.10.10.8 to 203.0.113.40 is denied by ACE 10
- HTTPS from 10.10.10.8 to 203.0.113.40 is permitted by ACE 20
- Every ICMP packet is denied by the implicit final deny
- SSH to every destination is denied by ACE 10
- ICMP from 10.10.10.8 to another reachable host is permitted by ACE 30
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Access lists are evaluated in sequence, and ACE 10 denies TCP packets from 10.10.10.0/24 to exactly 203.0.113.40 when the destination port is 22. A workstation at 10.10.10.8 sending SSH to that host matches this specific source, destination, protocol and port combination and is denied before later permits are considered. The wider permit IP rule cannot override an earlier matching deny.
C:ACE 20 permits TCP from the 10.10.10.0/24 sources to 203.0.113.40 when the destination port is 443. HTTPS from 10.10.10.8 satisfies those fields and reaches that rule because the preceding SSH deny matches port 22 instead. ACL ordering matters: the first matching ACE determines the permit/deny result, and this HTTPS packet meets the second ACE. Other TLS ports would be treated under later rules.
F:ICMP from 10.10.10.8 to another reachable host does not match the TCP-specific ACEs 10 or 20. It subsequently matches permit ip any any at ACE 30 and is permitted by the ACL, subject to other network controls. That outcome demonstrates why an explicit broad permit can make the implicit deny irrelevant to many packets. The scenario does not claim that the destination will respond; it only specifies this ACL's forwarding decision.
Incorrect Answers
B:HTTPS ordinarily uses TCP destination port 443, not SSH port 22. ACE 10 requires destination port 22, so an HTTPS packet from the same source to the same server does not match that deny. The packet proceeds to the next ACE, which explicitly permits TCP 443 for that source and destination. Reversing the port interpretation would create an incorrect access decision.
D:An implicit final deny applies only to packets that match no earlier explicit ACE. This list ends with permit ip any any, which matches ordinary IP traffic not already denied, including ICMP packets. Therefore it is inaccurate to claim all ICMP is discarded merely because ACLs conceptually have implicit denies. Review actual ACEs and order before inferring default behavior.
E:ACE 10 denies SSH only for the specified source subnet and specific destination 203.0.113.40; its destination criterion is not any. A connection to a different server on port 22 may pass to ACE 30 and be permitted. Extending one host-specific deny to every SSH target ignores the explicit destination field in an extended ACL.
Question 398
A switch port currently blocks user traffic because it is an alternate path for VLAN 40. The active upstream port fails. Which statement best describes the purpose of its alternate role under Rapid PVST+?
- The alternate must stay disabled until the VLAN is deleted and recreated
- The alternate forwards all user broadcasts at the same time as the root port
- The alternate supplies a standby root path that can be promoted if the active path fails
- The alternate converts the VLAN into a routed subnet when the active path fails
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:In Rapid PVST+, an alternate port provides a standby path toward the root bridge and normally remains discarding while a better active route exists. When the root port or associated upstream path fails, the protocol can promote a suitable alternate quickly, maintaining loop-free connectivity after convergence. This is why redundant uplinks can improve resilience without allowing both loops to forward simultaneously. Actual role selection depends on bridge IDs, costs and the operational topology for VLAN 40.
Incorrect Answers
A:A rapid spanning-tree alternate port does not require deleting and recreating a VLAN before it can provide backup connectivity. Its purpose is to offer a potential replacement path if the active root path fails, subject to protocol convergence. Keeping it permanently disabled would waste the redundant uplink and contradict the self-healing design of Rapid PVST+.
B:An alternate port is normally discarding user frames while the root port is active, preventing a Layer 2 loop on redundant paths. If both forwarded indiscriminately, broadcasts could circulate and MAC learning could become unstable. The alternate can transition to forwarding when selected after a failure, but it does not forward ordinary user traffic simultaneously with the current root path under normal conditions.
D:Spanning-tree port roles control Layer 2 forwarding and loop avoidance; they do not transform a VLAN into an IP-routed subnet after a link failure. A routed SVI and IP routing settings would be required for Layer 3 gateway functionality, regardless of which uplink STP selects. The alternate role describes resilient Ethernet topology, not network-layer conversion.
Question 399
An engineer is verifying dotted-decimal IPv4 subnet masks rather than host counts. Which TWO prefix-and-mask pairings are correct? Choose TWO.
- A /22 network uses subnet mask 255.255.252.0
- A /22 network uses subnet mask 255.255.0.0
- A /30 network uses subnet mask 255.255.255.252
- A /30 network uses subnet mask 255.255.255.248
- A /28 network uses subnet mask 255.255.255.224
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:A /22 prefix has 22 contiguous network bits, which means the first sixteen bits fill two mask octets and six additional one-bits occupy the third. Binary 11111100 in that octet equals decimal 252, giving 255.255.252.0. This exact conversion is valid independent of the host addresses assigned to the network. Mask arithmetic, not a memorized class designation, determines the pairing.
C:The /30 prefix has thirty contiguous one-bits: twenty-four across the first three octets and six in the last. Binary 11111100 corresponds to 252, so its dotted-decimal mask is 255.255.255.252. Such a conventional /30 has four addresses, normally two assignable hosts, though point-to-point designs can also use /31 under different rules. This is the correct second prefix-mask association.
Incorrect Answers
B:Mask 255.255.0.0 has exactly sixteen network bits and represents a /16 prefix, not /22. That difference changes the size of the corresponding network dramatically, so using it as a /22 substitute would misstate routing reachability. The /22 must preserve six more high bits in the third octet, producing 252 there.
D:The final octet 248 is binary 11111000, containing five one-bits and therefore representing a /29 mask when preceded by 255.255.255. A /30 requires six one-bits in the final octet, which is 252. Confusing these octets doubles the block size from four to eight addresses and changes host allocation.
E:The mask 255.255.255.224 has three leading one-bits in the final octet and therefore represents /27, not /28. A /28 has four leading one-bits there, giving 255.255.255.240. The difference shifts block increments from 32 to 16 addresses; prefix length and mask must correspond exactly in routing or subnet calculations.
Question 400
An administrator adds ip route 10.60.70.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.2 230. What does the final value 230 represent?
- The 230th GigabitEthernet interface
- The IPv4 prefix length
- The static route’s administrative distance
- A TCP port used for forwarding
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:In Cisco IOS static route syntax, an optional numeric value following the destination, mask and next-hop address specifies the route's administrative distance. Here 230 makes this a low-preference or floating static candidate that normally loses to many other eligible routes for the same /24 until they disappear. The route still needs a reachable next hop to install. The number is not a path metric or TCP port and does not alter the 10.60.70.0/24 destination block.
Incorrect Answers
A:The value 230 is placed at the end of an IPv4 static route statement, not in an interface name such as GigabitEthernet0/0. Router interfaces are identified separately by their IOS interface identifiers. Treating the number as a port index would ignore the command's syntax and could mislead troubleshooting about why this route appears or disappears from the routing table.
B:The destination prefix length is already specified by the subnet mask 255.255.255.0, which corresponds to /24. A value of 230 cannot be a valid IPv4 prefix length because IPv4 addresses contain only 32 bits. The trailing optional field in this static route instead influences selection preference against other route sources.
D:TCP ports belong to transport-layer conversations and are not specified as trailing fields of an ip route command. Routers forward normal IPv4 packets using the destination prefix and next-hop decision rather than treating the administrative distance as a service port. The numeric field 230 does not restrict which application ports can traverse the selected route.