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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 41

Question 400

An administrator adds ip route 10.60.70.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.2 230. What does the final value 230 represent?

  1. The 230th GigabitEthernet interface
  2. The IPv4 prefix length
  3. The static route’s administrative distance
  4. A TCP port used for forwarding

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

In Cisco IOS static route syntax, an optional numeric value following the destination, mask and next-hop address specifies the route's administrative distance. Here 230 makes this a low-preference or floating static candidate that normally loses to many other eligible routes for the same /24 until they disappear. The route still needs a reachable next hop to install. The number is not a path metric or TCP port and does not alter the 10.60.70.0/24 destination block.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The value 230 is placed at the end of an IPv4 static route statement, not in an interface name such as GigabitEthernet0/0. Router interfaces are identified separately by their IOS interface identifiers. Treating the number as a port index would ignore the command's syntax and could mislead troubleshooting about why this route appears or disappears from the routing table.

B:

The destination prefix length is already specified by the subnet mask 255.255.255.0, which corresponds to /24. A value of 230 cannot be a valid IPv4 prefix length because IPv4 addresses contain only 32 bits. The trailing optional field in this static route instead influences selection preference against other route sources.

D:

TCP ports belong to transport-layer conversations and are not specified as trailing fields of an ip route command. Routers forward normal IPv4 packets using the destination prefix and next-hop decision rather than treating the administrative distance as a service port. The numeric field 230 does not restrict which application ports can traverse the selected route.

Question 401

A Cisco route table entry begins with C 10.82.4.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1. Which origin does C identify?

  1. A default gateway learned from DHCP option 6
  2. A directly connected IPv4 network on an active routed interface
  3. A network learned from a remote OSPF neighbor
  4. A manually configured static route

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The C route-table code identifies a connected IPv4 subnet derived from a routed interface's active address and mask. Here GigabitEthernet0/1 owns an address in 10.82.4.0/24 and contributes that network to the local route table when its relevant operational state permits it. Neighbors on that subnet may be reached through the interface, while a separate L /32 entry may identify the router's own exact address. This is distinct from static or dynamically learned destinations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DHCP option 6 commonly supplies DNS resolver addresses to a client, not a default IPv4 route or an installed network's origin code. The routing table entry begins with a C and explicitly names an attached GigabitEthernet interface. That information describes local network reachability created by the interface configuration, not a learned service setting from DHCP.

C:

An OSPF-learned IPv4 network is normally marked with the route code O, possibly accompanied by route-type information, not the C code shown. Both connected and OSPF entries can appear in the same route table, but their source letters distinguish how the prefix became known. The explicitly named local interface and 'directly connected' text point to direct attachment, not a remote OSPF neighbor.

D:

A manually configured IPv4 static route ordinarily displays the code S after it is installed, often with a next-hop or outgoing-interface reference. The displayed C entry comes from interface addressing rather than an ip route statement. A connected subnet may coexist with static paths to remote networks, but this particular record is not one of them.

Question 402

A switch port Gi1/0/11 should carry an ordinary PC untagged in VLAN 34, but it is currently an 802.1Q trunk. Which mode and access assignment are appropriate?

  1. switchport mode access together with switchport access vlan 34
  2. spanning-tree portfast trunk on the PC port
  3. ip address 192.0.2.34 255.255.255.0 on the physical switchport
  4. switchport mode trunk with switchport native vlan 1

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A user-facing access port should place ordinary untagged workstation frames into its configured data VLAN without negotiating an 802.1Q trunk. switchport mode access explicitly gives Gi1/0/11 that role, while switchport access vlan 34 selects the VLAN membership. Both commands are needed to satisfy the separate mode and assignment requirements. Ensure VLAN 34 exists and the endpoint has an appropriate IP configuration; neither line automatically provides a Layer 3 gateway.

Incorrect Answers

B:

PortFast trunk mode can be appropriate in narrowly defined edge-server trunk designs, but it leaves the port operating as an 802.1Q trunk rather than a conventional untagged PC access port. Spanning-tree convergence settings do not assign the desired data VLAN in the intended access role. Using this as the fix could preserve the exact mode mismatch causing the problem.

C:

Configuring an IPv4 address on a conventional Layer 2 Catalyst access switchport does not establish the requested VLAN membership and may be invalid until the interface is converted into a routed port. The workstation needs an access VLAN classification; a gateway IP would be configured on a suitable SVI or router interface. Mixing those contexts does not solve the Layer 2 tagging role.

D:

A trunk with native VLAN 1 ordinarily handles untagged frames in VLAN 1, not the requested data VLAN 34. It also remains a trunk capable of transporting multiple VLANs, which is unnecessary for the ordinary workstation described. Even setting a different native VLAN would obscure the access-port requirement rather than configure the untagged client correctly.

Question 403

A branch replaces an unmanaged hub with a managed Layer 2 switch. What change should reduce unnecessary unicast delivery after MAC learning?

  1. Replace each desktop NIC with a second wireless access point
  2. Send every unicast out all ports exactly as a repeater would
  3. Forward known unicast frames only on the learned destination port in the correct VLAN
  4. Route every Ethernet frame through a new IP gateway

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A managed Layer 2 switch learns source MAC addresses by associating them with ingress ports and VLAN context. When a destination MAC is already in that VLAN's forwarding table, a normal known-unicast frame can be sent only to the learned egress port instead of repeated to every endpoint. Unknown unicast and broadcast still have different flooding behavior, so MAC learning reduces unnecessary delivery but does not eliminate all flooding. The reduction is achieved without an inter-subnet router.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Replacing each desktop network interface with another wireless access point would alter client connectivity rather than improve the Ethernet forwarding behavior of a managed switch. The problem concerns unnecessarily repeated unicast frames across a shared wired segment. A wireless AP is not needed to make a Layer 2 switch learn destination MAC addresses and send frames to the appropriate port.

B:

An unmanaged repeater or hub repeats incoming electrical signals across connected interfaces without a learned destination table, which is the excessive delivery pattern the branch wants to eliminate. A Layer 2 switch can instead distinguish known unicast recipients. Flooding all unicast frames after learning would retain hub-like behavior and erase the expected switching efficiency.

D:

Traffic between known MAC addresses in the same VLAN does not need to traverse an IP gateway; ordinary switching occurs at Layer 2. Forcing every frame through routing would add complexity and require a different topology rather than addressing hub-like unknown delivery. Routers remain appropriate when traffic must cross IP subnet boundaries, which the scenario does not require.

Question 404

A network camera has a documented unpatched flaw but has not yet been attacked. Which term identifies the flaw itself?

  1. The operator's authentication method, independent of software flaws
  2. Vulnerability in the exposed device software
  3. Confirmed exploit execution with established attacker control
  4. A completed security mitigation that removes every risk

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A vulnerability is a weakness in software, configuration or design that a threat actor could exploit under the right conditions. The camera has a documented unpatched flaw, so it is vulnerable even though no confirmed attack has occurred. Exposure and severity depend on reachable services, exploit prerequisites and the device's role; mitigation could include patching or limiting access. The word describes the condition itself, not proof of exploitation or a successful response.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An operator's authentication method controls how access is established and may be relevant to exposure, but it is not identical to a documented unpatched software weakness in a camera. An authentication setting can itself be vulnerable, yet the stem specifically identifies an outstanding software flaw. The correct security term refers to that exploitable condition even before an attacker attempts to use it.

C:

A confirmed exploit involves an attacker exercising a weakness, potentially obtaining unauthorized behavior or control. The question explicitly says the device has not yet been attacked, so it does not establish exploit execution. A known vulnerability remains a risk that requires mitigation before an intrusion occurs, but that status should not be mislabeled as a proven compromise.

D:

A completed mitigation would be a control such as installing a fixed firmware version, disabling a vulnerable service, or restricting it appropriately. The camera is described as still unpatched, so a complete remediation has not occurred. Even after a control is implemented, claiming every possible risk is removed would be excessive without verifying its scope.

Question 405

An operations script configures 250 access switches and fails on the thirteenth, leaving partially changed devices. What deployment safeguard limits this risk?

  1. Disable management backups before every automation run
  2. Always run the same unsafe changes simultaneously on every site
  3. Staged rollout with prechecks, checkpoints, validation and rollback
  4. Change switch DNS suffixes only after all ports are shut

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A staged configuration rollout first checks device eligibility and backups, applies changes to a small representative group, verifies post-change results, and advances only if those checks pass. Checkpoints identify which switches have been modified and support controlled rollback if a later device fails. For this 250-switch fleet, that avoids continuing blindly after device thirteen rejects a command. Idempotent automation and per-device results further help reconcile partial state; staged execution does not guarantee every command succeeds.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Disabling backups before a large configuration run removes a recovery option at the very time partial failure is most likely to need it. A script can stop mid-deployment while some switches already have changed settings. Preserving known-good configurations and rollback instructions is safer than eliminating recovery evidence or making the changes irreversible.

B:

Applying an untested change simultaneously to every campus switch multiplies the impact of a wrong template or unexpected platform difference. Since this script already failed after a subset of devices, a blanket parallel rollout would make it harder to identify which devices succeeded. Controlled batches and validation gates reduce the chance of spreading a defective configuration to all sites.

D:

Changing DNS suffixes after shutting switch ports is unrelated to managing a failed automation transaction. It risks cutting off management connectivity while offering no mechanism to validate or restore the partially applied original change. Safe deployment controls concern prechecks, ordered execution, accurate per-device results and rollback, not an arbitrary DNS change at the end.

Question 406

A branch uses 10.45.1.9 internally and has a single public IPv4 address 203.0.113.9 reserved for that server. Which NAT type preserves a fixed one-to-one mapping?

  1. DNS round-robin returning all private RFC1918 addresses
  2. Static inside source NAT for the server and public address
  3. Dynamic PAT that changes the server's public address per packet
  4. OSPF route redistribution of the server's RFC1918 /32 into the Internet

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Static inside-source NAT explicitly associates the internal server's address 10.45.1.9 with the reserved outside-visible identity 203.0.113.9. That one-to-one association remains stable and can support partner access when routes, firewall policy and inside/outside interface roles are configured correctly. The IOS command family is ip nat inside source static followed by the local and global addresses. Unlike session-by-session PAT, this translation does not depend on allocating an arbitrary shared port mapping to identify the server.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS round-robin returns a selection of records for a name and may influence which server a client reaches, but it does not create a fixed inside-local to inside-global NAT mapping. Returning private RFC1918 addresses to outside partners also does not make those addresses publicly routable. The requirement is a stable source or destination translation identity on the edge router, not naming or load distribution.

C:

PAT or NAT overload typically shares a public address among many internal sessions by translating source ports, and does not necessarily give a server a fixed dedicated public identity. It does not normally change the destination's public IP every packet as asserted. A fixed partner-facing mapping should be explicitly configured and maintained, with any required inbound service policy separately verified.

D:

OSPF redistribution can advertise routes between routing domains, but it does not convert a private 10.45.1.9 address into the assigned 203.0.113.9 public-facing identity. Advertising RFC1918 space onto the global Internet is not a substitute for translation and may violate routing policy. The edge must implement the specific static address rewrite rather than merely propagating a private host route.

Question 407

A router has candidate routes 10.0.0.0/8, 10.45.0.0/16, 10.45.79.0/24, 10.45.79.16/28. For destination 10.45.79.21, which listed route wins under longest-prefix matching before other tie-breakers?

  1. 10.45.79.16/28 via 192.0.2.14
  2. 10.45.79.0/24 via 192.0.2.13
  3. 10.45.0.0/16 via 192.0.2.12
  4. 10.0.0.0/8 via 192.0.2.11

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The destination 10.45.79.21 lies within the range 10.45.79.16 through 10.45.79.31, which is the /28 block in the route list. Because all four listed prefixes match the address, the /28 has the greatest number of significant destination bits and wins ordinary longest-prefix selection. This choice is made before comparing administrative distances or metrics among routes to the same prefix. The selected next hop in the option is 192.0.2.14, assuming the route is installed and usable.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The 10.45.79.0/24 route does cover 10.45.79.21 and would be eligible if the longer /28 were unavailable. But /24 has fewer significant bits than /28 and therefore loses the destination match while both are installed. Choosing the /24 because its network number appears simpler would ignore the most-specific-route rule.

C:

The 10.45.0.0/16 path encompasses the target destination but aggregates many additional 10.45.x.x addresses. The more-specific /24 and /28 entries provide narrower matches and override that summary for their contained destinations. Administrative distance between different prefixes does not cause the /16 to outrank a valid /28; specificity is determined first.

D:

The 10.0.0.0/8 entry is the broadest matching network shown and is useful as a summary fallback for many private 10/8 destinations. It is not the best match for a host inside the installed 10.45.79.16/28 subnet. Selecting the /8 merely because it covers everything would undermine route summarization and specific path control.

Question 408

A two-switch 802.1Q uplink already allows VLANs 10,20,30. An operator needs VLAN 77 as well, without losing the earlier three. Which IOS syntax is safest?

  1. switchport access vlan 77
  2. switchport trunk allowed vlan 77
  3. switchport trunk allowed vlan add 77
  4. spanning-tree vlan 77 priority 0

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The switchport trunk allowed vlan add 77 syntax appends VLAN 77 to the existing allowed set on supported Catalyst trunks, keeping the previous 10, 20 and 30 entries rather than replacing them. Confirm VLAN 77 exists locally and on the peer and inspect operational trunk output for spanning-tree forwarding and permitted lists. This is a membership change, not a native VLAN or trunk mode change. Using the incremental add form avoids accidental loss of established VLAN carriage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An access VLAN setting classifies untagged frames entering an access-mode switchport; it does not extend an operational multi-VLAN trunk's allowed list. The uplink already transports VLANs 10, 20 and 30, and must also carry 77. Changing the access VLAN may be inactive in trunk mode and would not guarantee that VLAN 77 is forwarded between switches.

B:

The switchport trunk allowed vlan 77 command without add normally replaces the current allowed VLAN list with only VLAN 77. That would remove 10, 20 and 30 even though policy requires preserving them, potentially breaking existing clients. Trunk allowed lists should be changed incrementally when the requirement explicitly says the old VLANs must remain.

D:

Spanning-tree priority controls which switch is preferred as root for a VLAN, not whether an 802.1Q trunk is permitted to carry that VLAN. A bridge priority of zero could change topology selection significantly, while leaving VLAN 77 absent from the allowed list. Root election and trunk admission are separate requirements; the question asks for the latter.

Question 409

An organization adds a separate distribution layer between access and campus core to enforce building-specific policy. Which architecture change did it make?

  1. Use one unmanaged SOHO gateway for the entire campus
  2. Replace every building uplink with a shared half-duplex Ethernet hub
  3. Replace its routed core with only wireless repeaters
  4. Move from collapsed core toward a three-tier campus hierarchy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A three-tier campus separates endpoint access, distribution and core functions. Introducing a dedicated distribution layer between access switches and the backbone allows building policy, aggregation and route boundaries to be managed separately from the high-speed transit core. The earlier collapsed-core model combines distribution and core into one upper tier; splitting them produces the described hierarchy. Hardware details can vary, but the functional separation of these three layers defines the design change.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A single small-office gateway consolidates routing, firewall and local access functions and lacks the separate aggregation and backbone roles described. Replacing a growing campus with an unmanaged integrated device would reduce hierarchy rather than add building-specific distribution. The design needs an intermediate policy and aggregation layer, not further collapse into a SOHO topology.

B:

A half-duplex shared hub repeats Ethernet signals rather than implementing scalable distribution-layer policy, routing and redundant aggregation. Using a common hub on building uplinks would introduce collision-domain constraints and remove managed switching capabilities. It would not provide the separate policy enforcement role the organization added between access and core tiers.

C:

Wireless repeaters extend radio coverage and do not provide a dedicated campus transit core or building distribution layer. The prompt concerns the wired hierarchical architecture used to aggregate access switches and enforce site policy. Substituting repeaters for a routed core would not preserve the expected high-speed resilient backbone function.

Question 410

Employees repeatedly plug unknown USB network adapters into secure workstations. Which security program element reduces this behavior?

  1. Increasing DHCP lease duration for all endpoints
  2. Setting every Wi-Fi access point to the same channel
  3. A new OSPF router ID numbering scheme for the core
  4. Role-appropriate security awareness and acceptable-use training plus device controls

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Role-specific awareness training should explain why unknown USB network adapters can bypass expected endpoint controls, introduce untrusted interfaces or expand exposure. A clear acceptable-use policy teaches which peripherals are permitted, while device controls such as approved-device lists, endpoint management and administrative privilege restrictions can enforce that policy. Regular reinforcement and incident reporting make the behavior change measurable. Training alone is not sufficient if users can freely attach dangerous peripherals, so technical controls should complement it.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DHCP lease duration determines how long a client may retain dynamically assigned IP configuration before renewal; it does not address whether employees are allowed to attach unknown USB network devices. Longer leases might reduce address-renewal traffic but would not teach endpoint security behavior or block unauthorized hardware. The issue is a human and device-control risk, not lease timing.

B:

A wireless channel plan affects radio interference and client airtime but does not govern the use of USB Ethernet or Wi-Fi adapters on secured workstations. Forcing all APs to one channel could even worsen performance. The organization needs acceptable-use policy and endpoint restrictions, not unrelated RF changes, to reduce risky peripheral attachment.

C:

OSPF router IDs distinguish routers in a routing domain and are unrelated to employee choices about plugging unapproved adapters into PCs. Renumbering the core would affect network control-plane identity rather than device governance. The network can have perfectly unique OSPF IDs and still face unsafe endpoint hardware behavior, so a security-awareness and enforcement response is needed.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests