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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 43

Question 420

Two routers share one HSRP virtual IP as the clients' default gateway. Which router normally forwards for that virtual address?

  1. The switch whose VLAN ID matches the HSRP group name
  2. A DHCP client elected by lowest workstation MAC address
  3. The active HSRP member currently owning the virtual gateway role
  4. Every standby router simultaneously duplicates each user packet

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The active HSRP router currently owns the shared virtual gateway's forwarding responsibility and normally answers for its virtual IP/MAC in the client VLAN. Hosts continue using that stable gateway address even if active ownership later transfers to another member after failure detection. Priority, preemption and tracking can affect which router is active, but the present question asks who forwards under normal current state. Standby members are ready to take over, not simultaneously the primary forwarder.

Incorrect Answers

A:

HSRP group numbering and VLAN configuration are different concepts; a switch does not automatically become the virtual gateway just because its VLAN ID matches an HSRP group number. The gateway role follows HSRP participation and active/standby state among the routers configured for the shared virtual IP. Matching numeric labels alone does not grant forwarding ownership.

B:

DHCP clients obtain address and gateway parameters but do not elect the router that should answer for an HSRP virtual IP. The lowest workstation MAC has no role in HSRP active election. HSRP participants exchange control messages and determine the active first-hop gateway independently of host address-lease behavior.

D:

HSRP is a first-hop redundancy protocol, not a mechanism for sending duplicate user packets through every standby router at once. Simultaneous uncontrolled forwarding would undermine the single stable virtual gateway identity. The standby listens for active failure and may assume the role during convergence; normally the current active member handles the host traffic for the virtual address.

Question 421

A Rapid PVST+ topology has bridge priority 24576 on SW-A and 28672 on SW-B for VLAN 40, with otherwise ordinary bridge IDs. Which becomes root for VLAN 40?

  1. SW-A, because its configured bridge priority is lower
  2. The switch with the smallest IP default gateway becomes root
  3. SW-B because a larger numeric priority is always preferred
  4. Both switches become independent roots of the same connected VLAN

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Spanning Tree Protocol elects the root bridge by comparing Bridge IDs, beginning with the bridge priority component. For VLAN 40, priority 24576 on SW-A is numerically lower than 28672 on SW-B, so SW-A is preferred under the stated otherwise ordinary IDs. MAC addresses become relevant when other Bridge ID components tie. Verify actual root state after convergence because unseen additional switches or changed priorities could affect a real deployment.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An IP default-gateway address determines where a host or management device sends packets outside its local IP subnet; it is not the first criterion for STP root election. Bridges compare Layer 2 Bridge IDs, not the numeric values of configured IP gateways. A switch with no management IPv4 address can still participate fully in spanning tree and become the root.

C:

Bridge priority works in the opposite direction from the claim: a lower numerical priority is better for root election, not a higher one. SW-B's value of 28672 makes it less preferred than SW-A at 24576 if the remaining relevant components and topology are ordinary. Choosing SW-B on the basis of the larger number would invert STP's root-selection rule.

D:

Within one connected spanning-tree instance for VLAN 40, normal bridge election produces a single root Bridge ID that other participants agree upon after convergence. Both switches do not intentionally maintain independent roots while exchanging valid BPDUs for the same VLAN. Separate isolated VLAN segments could have different roots, but that is not the connected two-switch scenario described.

Question 422

A router shows L 192.0.2.6/32 is directly connected on Gi0/1. What does the L prefix represent?

  1. The complete Ethernet broadcast domain /24
  2. The multicast all-routers group address
  3. The next-hop IP of a remote BGP peer
  4. The router's own local interface host address

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Cisco IOS uses L to designate a local route associated with the router's own configured IPv4 interface address. The /32 prefix 192.0.2.6 matches that exact address, so packets destined there are processed locally rather than forwarded to another host on Gi0/1. The router may also install a C route covering the broader attached subnet. This distinction helps diagnose whether traffic is addressed to the device itself or to a neighbor on the same link.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The /24 connected network prefix and the /32 local host entry serve different route-table purposes. A full 192.0.2.0/24 connected subnet would normally be represented by C, while L 192.0.2.6/32 identifies one exact interface-owned address. Treating this local host route as the entire Ethernet broadcast domain confuses an address owned by the router with its on-link network.

B:

IPv4 multicast router groups have dedicated multicast address ranges and are not designated by an ordinary L host prefix for the router's own interface address. The 192.0.2.6/32 entry uses a unicast documentation IPv4 address and reflects interface ownership, not a group subscription. The route-table source code is the decisive distinction here.

C:

A remote BGP next hop may appear as via an IP address in a learned route, and BGP-originated entries typically have different route codes. An L entry is installed because the router itself has an interface numbered 192.0.2.6, not because an external peer advertised that next hop. Host route specificity alone does not imply the route is remote.

Question 423

A financial batch transfer requires in-order byte delivery and retransmission of losses, even if latency increases. Which transport suits it?

  1. TCP with acknowledgements and ordered reliable stream semantics
  2. ICMP echo as a full transaction transport
  3. UDP without any application reliability mechanism
  4. Ethernet ARP exchanges in place of a transport protocol

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

TCP offers a connection-oriented ordered byte stream with sequence numbers, acknowledgments and retransmission to recover lost segments. Those mechanisms suit a financial batch transfer where completeness and original ordering matter more than a modest increase in delivery latency after loss. Flow control also helps avoid overwhelming the receiver, although application integrity checks remain important for end-to-end correctness. The protocol does not guarantee that the remote application accepted a business transaction, only reliable transport of the byte stream under normal operation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

ICMP echo messages support reachability diagnostics and do not provide a transactional application transport with sequencing, acknowledgments for every byte, or retransmission of missing file contents. A successful ping indicates that an echo reply returned, not that the financial batch stream arrived intact. The application needs a proper reliable transport mechanism rather than network-layer probing.

C:

UDP datagrams can be useful for real-time media or applications implementing their own reliability, but bare UDP does not guarantee ordered delivery or retransmit lost datagrams. The question explicitly excludes an added application-level reliability mechanism. A batch file could be incomplete or reordered without such controls, so UDP alone does not satisfy the stated requirement.

D:

ARP resolves an IPv4 neighbor's link-layer MAC address for local Ethernet delivery; it is not a transport service for ordered application records. Hosts may use ARP before sending TCP traffic to a gateway, but that supporting resolution cannot replace TCP's stream acknowledgments and loss recovery. Interpreting address discovery as a file transfer protocol would leave data integrity unprotected.

Question 424

A network team wants to stop administrators from reusing one password across shared systems. Which operational control best supports individual accountability?

  1. OSPF route summaries labeled with admin names
  2. One common permanent password for all network staff
  3. DHCP reservations containing every admin username
  4. Individual administrator identities with approved password managers and centralized access review

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Individual named administrator identities let TACACS+/RADIUS or suitable local AAA systems attribute authentication and authorized management activity to distinct people. Approved password managers can generate and store strong unique credentials, reducing reuse across production devices. Central account lifecycle review supports timely disablement and least-privilege access, while accounting logs help investigate changes. Multi-factor authentication and secure transport can strengthen this design further; none of these goals is met by a permanent shared enable password.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF route summaries describe reachable IP prefixes and reduce routing-table detail; labels in routing documentation do not create or protect user identities. An administrator could still share one password even if the route plan mentions their name. The operational issue is credential reuse and action attribution, which requires identity and authentication controls rather than a control-plane naming convention.

B:

A shared permanent password prevents reliable attribution of management actions to one individual and makes revocation difficult when a staff member leaves. Even if the password is complex, compromise exposes access for everyone using that common credential. Unique accounts and approved secret storage reduce this shared-risk exposure, whereas keeping one team password perpetuates the problem.

C:

DHCP reservations link network clients or identifiers to addressing decisions and are not a secure credential vault or network-administrator authentication system. Storing usernames in DHCP options would neither validate a password nor identify which person issued a privileged configuration command. The team needs per-user login and access review, not address-lease metadata.

Question 425

In an SDN fabric, the routed physical network carries encapsulated tenant segments between edge nodes. Which layer provides this IP transport reachability?

  1. The wireless SSID beacon only
  2. The underlay network
  3. The overlay tenant ID alone
  4. The HTTPS browser history on the controller

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The underlay is the physical and routed IP transport network connecting fabric nodes, including links and forwarding information needed to reach remote encapsulation endpoints. The overlay carries logical tenant segments or virtual networks above that transport, often using encapsulation. If the underlay loses a path to an endpoint, overlay traffic may fail despite a perfectly defined segment identifier. This makes underlay routing, MTU and resilience fundamental to fabric health even though logical segmentation is configured separately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An SSID beacon announces a wireless network's identity and may carry supported radio capabilities, but it is not the IP transport foundation between fabric edge or tunnel endpoints. Overlay packets can cross wired leaf/spine links without any WLAN. The scenario's physical routed network provides reachability independently of which user-facing SSID might connect a client to an access segment.

C:

An overlay tenant ID identifies a logical segment and can select virtual forwarding context, but it does not move packets between sites by itself. Encapsulated frames still need a reachable IP path from one tunnel endpoint to another. Confusing logical membership with physical transport would hide routing, link failure or MTU problems that prevent the overlay from functioning.

D:

Browser history on a controller records prior web navigation and has no part in carrying user data between encapsulation endpoints. A controller may present the overlay configuration through HTTPS, but the underlying packet path runs through switches and routers, not through an operator's browser records. The question concerns the data transport architecture rather than management-interface activity.

Question 426

A newly plugged-in laptop gets a valid DHCP lease but cannot translate internal server names. Which DHCP-provided setting should be investigated?

  1. The OSPF designated-router election timer
  2. The DNS resolver addresses supplied to the client
  3. The WAN firewall's SNMP read community
  4. Only the power budget of the access switch chassis

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

DHCP can supply DNS resolver IPv4 addresses, commonly using option 6, alongside the client address, mask and default gateway. A laptop with a valid lease but no internal name resolution may have missing, incorrect or unreachable DNS servers, even if routing to raw IP addresses works. Inspect the assigned resolver list and test direct queries to the expected server. DNS zone content and firewall allowances may still matter, but the DHCP-provided setting is the first directly relevant field.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The OSPF designated-router election affects routing adjacency roles on broadcast networks, not the DNS server addresses delivered to a new laptop by DHCP. The device already has a valid IP lease and the failure is name resolution. Checking DR priority before examining client resolver configuration would miss the likely application-layer dependency.

C:

An SNMP read community controls access to some device-management polling and does not tell the laptop where to send DNS queries. It may be important for monitoring the firewall, but cannot repair a resolver configuration missing from DHCP. The symptom concerns translating internal hostnames, not retrieving management counters from an SNMP agent.

D:

The access switch PoE budget matters when powering certain phones, access points or cameras, but the laptop already obtained an IP lease over its network connection. A physical power shortfall would more likely affect link or AP availability, not selectively break internal name lookup while addressing succeeds. DNS option assignment should be inspected before unrelated chassis power details.

Question 427

R1 has an installed static 192.168.145.192/27 route to Null0, a healthy 192.168.145.128/25 route toward R2, and a default route toward the WAN. A packet arrives for 192.168.145.198. What does ordinary destination-based forwarding do?

  1. Forward to R2 because the /25 leads to a reachable router even though a /27 Null0 route exists
  2. Discard through Null0 because the matching /27 is more specific than /25 or /0
  3. Send it to the WAN default gateway because Null0 entries are never used for forwarding decisions
  4. Replicate the packet to all three candidate routes because each prefix includes the destination

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Address 192.168.145.198 belongs to the installed 192.168.145.192/27 range, so this /27 is the longest matching route. Its outgoing interface is Null0, which means matching traffic is deliberately discarded even though a broader valid /25 path and a default path also exist. A Null0 summary or discard route can protect against loops, but an incorrectly specific Null0 entry creates a black hole for legitimate destinations. Inspect the route table and remove or correct the /27 if that was unintended.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The /25 via R2 covers 192.168.145.128 through.255 and therefore does match.198, but the installed /27 discard route is more specific. Ordinary destination forwarding selects the longest matching prefix before considering whether a less-specific path points toward a live neighbor. R2 would be selected only if that /27 were absent or otherwise ineligible.

C:

A default route is a /0 fallback, not a preference over an installed longer matching prefix. Null0 is a valid discard forwarding destination on Cisco IOS and is included in the routing decision when selected. The WAN default might handle traffic for addresses lacking more-specific entries, but this packet has a matching /27 and should not take the default.

D:

The prefixes /27, /25 and /0 overlap, but they do not represent equal-cost alternatives for the same exact destination prefix. Standard IP lookup chooses one best installed prefix, not a multicast-style replication to every containing route. Equal-cost multipath applies among qualifying next hops of the selected prefix, which is not the situation described here.

Question 428

A lightweight AP serves clients under a central WLC and has reliable connectivity to it. Which AP mode ordinarily provides client service?

  1. Monitor mode with all WLAN service disabled
  2. Local mode for normal infrastructure wireless client access
  3. Cisco IOS ROMMON mode for user Wi-Fi traffic
  4. Sniffer mode as a normal production client-serving mode

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A lightweight AP in Local mode normally supplies infrastructure 802.11 access for associated wireless stations while communicating with the central WLC. In centrally switched designs, client data may traverse CAPWAP to the controller, subject to WLAN and platform configuration. A healthy WLC connection enables the AP to receive policy and maintain its normal client-serving role. Other modes such as monitor or sniffer support diagnostics rather than ordinary WLAN association service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Monitor mode is primarily for radio monitoring functions such as observing RF conditions or rogue devices, not normal association and service to client stations on that AP. A controller can coordinate monitoring access points alongside serving ones, but the question asks which mode ordinarily provides client WLAN connectivity. Selecting a monitoring role would not meet normal client service requirements.

C:

ROMMON is a low-level boot or recovery environment on certain Cisco platforms, not a wireless service mode for operational AP client associations. A device unable to boot the needed wireless software cannot offer normal production WLANs simply by being in ROMMON. The request concerns the AP's functional operation after a reliable controller join, so a client-serving mode is appropriate.

D:

Sniffer mode can dedicate radio resources to capturing 802.11 frames for analysis and forwarding captures to a tool, rather than acting as a normal client-serving access point. This can be useful for diagnosing WLAN behavior, but does not match the need to serve associated wireless clients. Use Local mode on an appropriate AP when normal infrastructure connectivity is required.

Question 429

An access switch SVI is configured as 10.81.6.173/26. Which exact IPv4 network address identifies its connected subnet?

  1. 10.81.6.191
  2. 10.81.6.64
  3. 10.81.6.128
  4. 10.81.6.129

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A /26 mask leaves six host bits and creates four 64-address blocks in the last octet:.0,.64,.128 and.192. Interface 10.81.6.173 lies in.128 through.191, so the connected network address is 10.81.6.128/26. The router may also create a local /32 route for.173 itself; that is distinct from the subnet's connected prefix. Broadcast.191 and normal host.129 must not be confused with the network ID.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Address 10.81.6.191 is the directed broadcast endpoint of the 10.81.6.128/26 subnet, not its network identifier. A /26 has 64 addresses, so the block containing.173 spans.128 through.191. The network ID is the lower endpoint where all six host bits are zero, not the higher broadcast value.

B:

The 10.81.6.64/26 block spans.64 through.127 and therefore does not contain interface address.173. Choosing.64 may look plausible because /26 increments in 64-address steps, but the correct multiple is.128 for any final octet from 128 through 191. Verify the actual host's interval before selecting a route prefix.

D:

The value.129 is the first conventional usable host in 10.81.6.128/26, not the network address. A connected route uses the aligned prefix.128, obtained by clearing the six host bits of.173. Selecting a valid individual host as the network ID could produce an invalid or ambiguous route statement even though that host is inside the correct subnet.

Question 430

Two offices need confidential communication between internal LANs across a public provider network. Which IPsec deployment pattern fits?

  1. Site-to-site IPsec tunnel between authorized edge gateways
  2. A common SSID alone without WAN encryption
  3. Static DNS A records for the remote internal hosts only
  4. A Bluetooth personal-area connection between all office PCs

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A site-to-site IPsec VPN terminates on authorized gateways at the two offices and can protect defined subnet-to-subnet traffic while it traverses an untrusted provider or the Internet. The gateways negotiate security associations and use IPsec encryption and integrity mechanisms as configured, so ordinary internal hosts need not each start an individual remote-access tunnel. Routing, matching traffic selectors and firewall policies must also be correct. The tunnel protects the WAN segment but does not replace endpoint security inside either LAN.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An SSID names a wireless LAN and does not provide encryption for packets travelling between offices across a public WAN. Even a strongly protected Wi-Fi SSID secures only the appropriate wireless access segment, not necessarily the routed provider path between two sites. The use case demands gateway-to-gateway protection of intersite traffic rather than a common radio network label.

C:

DNS A records map names to IPv4 addresses but do not encrypt or authenticate traffic between office LANs. Correct name resolution might help applications locate remote servers once a secure connection exists, but it cannot establish a confidential site-to-site tunnel. Translation of hostnames and protection of packets in transit are separate functions.

D:

Bluetooth is designed for short-range personal-area device connections, not a routable encrypted WAN spanning two offices over a public provider network. Requiring every office PC to use Bluetooth would fail the geographic reach and gateway-based subnet requirement. IPsec gateways are built for this routed intersite transport scenario.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests