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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 38

Question 370

An administrator creates ip access-list extended STAFF-WEB and adds ACEs. Which TWO steps confirm it is actually filtering incoming VLAN 25 traffic as intended? Choose TWO.

  1. Ensure only an unrelated standard ACL is applied outbound on the WAN
  2. Apply ip access-group STAFF-WEB in on the appropriate VLAN 25 Layer 3 interface
  3. Enable spanning-tree portfast on the VLAN 25 gateway
  4. Change the WLAN SSID to STAFF-WEB
  5. Inspect the interface ACL association and matching counters after controlled test traffic

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Creating an extended named ACL does not apply it to any packets until it is attached to an appropriate interface and direction. Using ip access-group STAFF-WEB in under the routed VLAN 25 interface causes arriving packets to be checked against its ordered ACEs before forwarding, subject to platform behavior. Confirm this is actually the intended inbound traffic boundary and that the ACL includes necessary permits to avoid unintended implicit denial.

E:

After attaching the ACL in the intended direction, inspect the running interface association and access-list match counters while sending controlled allowed and denied test packets. This shows that traffic actually hits the expected ACEs instead of relying on a configuration file alone. Counter behavior depends on platform implementation and hardware acceleration, so corroborate with controlled reachability and supported platform diagnostics. The test must include both prohibited and legitimate flows.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An unrelated outbound standard ACL on the WAN is not equivalent to applying the named extended STAFF-WEB rule to inbound traffic from VLAN 25. Standard ACLs normally match source IPs and cannot express the same detailed transport and destination rules as an extended list. Even if that WAN policy affects some flows later, it does not prove the intended VLAN 25 ingress filtering is active.

C:

Spanning-tree PortFast governs Layer 2 state transitions on suitable host-facing switchports; it does not bind an IPv4 ACL to the routed VLAN gateway. VLAN 25 clients might forward at Layer 2 normally while the extended security policy remains unused. The question is about applying and confirming IP packet filtering, not STP access-port convergence.

D:

Renaming a wireless SSID to STAFF-WEB only changes the WLAN identifier seen by clients. It does not reference a named IOS access-list object or attach its ACEs to ingress VLAN 25 routing. Even an SSID with the same text as an ACL has no automatic relationship unless explicitly integrated through a supported controller policy, which is absent here.

Question 371

An OSPF process already established neighbors using router ID 10.0.0.1. The administrator configures router-id 10.0.0.9 under the active process. When will the new ID normally be used?

  1. Immediately for all current adjacencies without any protocol disruption
  2. After the OSPF process restarts or the router reloads
  3. Only after changing every IPv4 default route on the router
  4. Never; manually configured router IDs are ignored on Cisco IOS

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cisco IOS generally selects the OSPF router ID at process startup and retains it until the OSPF process is restarted or the device reloads. After entering router-id 10.0.0.9 under the active process, the configured value is normally used upon a subsequent process restart, which may reset adjacencies and trigger routing convergence. Coordinate that outage with operations and verify the ID using show ip ospf after the restart. This is not a default-route change.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Changing router-id under an already running OSPF process does not normally rewrite the identifier within all established adjacencies instantly without disruption. Peers use router IDs to track protocol neighbors and LSAs, so changing identity requires the process to reinitialize appropriately. Expect a deliberate reset or reload window, not a seamless live rename of every existing OSPF relationship.

C:

IPv4 default routes govern forwarding for destinations without more-specific matches; they do not select or apply an OSPF router identifier. Changing every default route would risk production forwarding and leave the running OSPF process using its current identity until restarted. Router ID is a control-plane identifier configured in the OSPF process, not a property of next-hop route statements.

D:

Cisco IOS supports an explicit OSPF router-id configuration, which overrides automatic selection when activated through the appropriate process lifecycle. The command is not ignored; the confusion is that the new ID usually waits for a restart. It can be chosen independently of whether any interface is actually assigned that exact IPv4 address.

Question 372

Switches SW1 and SW2 are operating in VTP transparent mode. Hosts on each switch must share Layer 2 VLAN 22 over an existing 802.1Q uplink. Which THREE conditions are necessary for normal same-VLAN forwarding? Choose THREE.

  1. VLAN 22 must be active in the local VLAN database on both switches
  2. Both access ports must use VLAN 1 so broadcasts reach both hosts
  3. The host-facing switchports must be assigned to VLAN 22
  4. ip routing must be enabled on both switches even though hosts share one VLAN
  5. The interswitch trunk must carry VLAN 22 in a forwarding state
  6. The hosts must use the trunk native VLAN as their default gateway

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

In VTP transparent mode, each switch manages its local VLAN database rather than accepting server-style VLAN database propagation. VLAN 22 must therefore exist and be active on both SW1 and SW2 for normal switching of those frames. The fact that a trunk carries tagged VLAN IDs does not automatically create the corresponding local VLAN on the other switch. Validate VLAN state explicitly on each device.

C:

A workstation port classifies untagged client frames into its configured access VLAN. Setting both host-facing ports to VLAN 22 ensures each host participates in that same Layer 2 broadcast domain, assuming the VLAN exists locally. Without correct access membership, a trunk carrying VLAN 22 between switches will not make the endpoints part of that VLAN. Verify with the interface switchport and VLAN views.

E:

The existing 802.1Q interswitch uplink must permit VLAN 22 and be operationally forwarding it, with spanning-tree state allowing traffic. That tagged transport connects the two local VLAN 22 domains between transparent-mode switches. If VLAN 22 is pruned, missing from the allowed list, or blocked by a relevant layer 2 state, hosts cannot bridge normally even though their access ports are correct. Check operational trunk output, not just configuration lines.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Assigning both host access ports to VLAN 1 would put clients in the wrong broadcast domain and abandon the requirement for VLAN 22. The host ports must share VLAN 22, not merely share a common default VLAN. Using VLAN 1 as a workaround can also violate segmentation policy; it does not repair missing VLAN 22 membership or trunk transport.

D:

Two hosts in the same IPv4 subnet and same VLAN communicate by direct Layer 2 forwarding and ARP; they do not require inter-VLAN IP routing on both switches. Enabling ip routing would be necessary for a suitable Layer 3 switching design, not for the ordinary same-broadcast-domain communication described. The problem can be solved with correct local VLANs, access assignments and trunk forwarding.

F:

A native VLAN determines handling of untagged frames on an 802.1Q trunk and is not automatically the IPv4 default-gateway address for hosts. Same-subnet hosts in VLAN 22 can communicate directly without using a router gateway; any off-subnet gateway must be an IP address reachable on the host's network. Confusing VLAN ID with an IP first hop cannot enable Layer 2 communication.

Question 373

A host uses 10.40.18.50/27. What is the first conventional usable host address in its subnet?

  1. 10.40.18.32 is the first usable host because it is the lowest address in the /27
  2. 10.40.18.34 is the first usable host after a reserved router address
  3. 10.40.18.33 is the first usable host for 10.40.18.32/27
  4. 10.40.18.63 is the first usable address at the upper end of the /27

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The address 10.40.18.50/27 belongs to the 10.40.18.32–63 block because a /27 advances in increments of 32 in the last octet. The network ID is.32 and the directed broadcast is.63, leaving usable host addresses.33 through.62. Therefore.33 is the first conventional usable address. The router's gateway choice could consume that value later, but it does not change the calculated subnet boundary.

Incorrect Answers

A:

For a conventional /27 subnet, the low endpoint.32 is the network identifier because all five host bits are zero. Hosts cannot ordinarily use that network address as their unicast IP assignment. The first usable host is one greater,.33, while the broadcast is the top endpoint.63. Confusing the network ID with the first device address is a common subnetting error.

B:

There is no automatic reservation of a router address at.33 when calculating the first mathematically usable host. A network administrator may choose.33 for the gateway, but that would be an operational allocation choice, not an IPv4 subnetting rule. The question asks for the conventional first assignable address irrespective of what equipment will use it.

D:

The.63 endpoint has all five /27 host bits equal to one, so it is the directed broadcast for the 10.40.18.32/27 subnet rather than a valid normal host. It cannot simultaneously be the first usable host at the high end. A /27's first and last values serve different reserved functions; their arithmetic is independent of the number of connected devices.

Question 374

A router lists O 192.0.2.0/25 [110/18] via 10.1.1.2 and O 192.0.2.128/25 [110/33] via 10.1.1.3. Why is it incorrect to pick the first route merely because 18 is less than 33 for a packet to 192.0.2.200?

  1. 18 is a greater administrative distance than 33
  2. The router must always use the numerically smallest next-hop IPv4 address
  3. 192.0.2.200 matches the second /25 network, not the first
  4. OSPF can never install two routes with the same /25 length

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The route 192.0.2.0/25 covers addresses.0 through.127, while 192.0.2.128/25 covers.128 through.255. Destination 192.0.2.200 lies in the second network, so the second OSPF route via 10.1.1.3 is the matching candidate regardless of the first route's lower metric. Cost comparison applies when choosing among routes for the same prefix, not when the destinations are different nonoverlapping subnet halves. The bracket notation also shows both routes use the same distance 110.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The bracketed numbers use the IOS format [administrative distance/metric]; 110 is the OSPF administrative distance and 18 or 33 is the path metric. The claim reverses those meanings by treating 18 and 33 as administrative distances. Even if they were path costs, a router must first determine which destination prefix contains the packet's address before comparing metrics for eligible routes to the same prefix.

B:

A next-hop address can be part of a selected route, but choosing the numerically smallest next-hop IP is not the ordinary destination-based routing decision. For 192.0.2.200, the route through 10.1.1.3 is associated with the matching upper /25. The router does not prefer 10.1.1.2 merely because it has a smaller address or metric on a different prefix.

D:

OSPF can install many routes with the same prefix length when they cover different destination networks. Here the two /25s refer to separate halves of 192.0.2.0/24, so both can be valid simultaneously. Prefix length alone does not imply an installation conflict. Each route is chosen by whether the actual packet destination lies inside that network.

Question 375

A controller successfully displays a desired network fabric policy, but the switch forwarding state has not updated. What operational distinction does this reveal?

  1. The underlay has automatically encrypted all user traffic
  2. The controller has replaced every MAC table with the policy document
  3. Desired control intent must be translated, applied and verified in the actual data plane
  4. A network is fully configured whenever its JSON parses successfully

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Controller policy describes the desired behavior, but successful presentation or storage of that policy does not prove it reached managed switches. The controller must translate intent into supported device instructions, deliver them, check operational acceptance, and ideally validate actual forwarding through telemetry or test traffic. A mismatch between displayed policy and switch state indicates a deployment or verification gap. The device data plane remains the final source of actual packet behavior, subject to local state and errors.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An underlay can carry IP reachability between fabric nodes and may support security controls, but successfully displaying a controller policy does not automatically encrypt all user traffic. Encryption requires particular protocols or device capabilities and their deployment and verification. The observed discrepancy is between desired controller state and actual switch forwarding state, not proof of a universal confidentiality service.

B:

A controller's policy document is control-plane intent or a desired-state representation, while switches still maintain MAC and routing forwarding information. Reading a successful policy page does not replace hardware tables with text. Devices must receive and successfully apply the relevant configuration or state before packet behavior changes. Confusing intent with data-plane state would leave the issue undiagnosed.

D:

Parsing a JSON document confirms that its syntax is valid, not that the desired network configuration has been installed or is consistent with device capabilities. A controller can accept valid JSON while a southbound push fails or a switch rejects a policy. Real assurance requires operational evidence such as installed interface/route state and relevant traffic tests.

Question 376

Two routers must provide consistent log timestamps during an outage investigation. Which TWO operational checks most directly support trustworthy time correlation? Choose TWO.

  1. Verify both devices report synchronization to an accepted time source
  2. Confirm that both routers use the same Ethernet duplex setting
  3. Use the highest syslog severity number available on both routers
  4. Disable NTP and independently set the clock by hand once
  5. Confirm the configured sources are reachable and check the NTP association state

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

If both routers synchronize to an accepted NTP source, their clocks can be compared across independent syslog events with much less uncertainty. Verify synchronization status and appropriate offsets rather than assuming configuration alone implies correct time. Consistent timestamps help reconstruct whether a link failure preceded a routing adjacency loss. Correct timezone presentation also matters for analysts interpreting logs, although NTP itself maintains time independently of local display zones.

E:

An NTP configuration statement does not guarantee synchronization if the server is unreachable, the association is rejected, or the selected source is unsuitable. Checking source reachability and current NTP associations distinguishes a configured intent from an actually synchronized clock. Compare association status, selected peer and offset values on both routers. This operational validation supports confidence that timestamps from different log streams can be placed on a single incident timeline.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Matching Ethernet duplex settings is important for link performance and avoiding late collisions, but it does not synchronize clock time between devices. Two perfectly healthy interfaces can produce logs with inconsistent timestamps if their clocks drift. The outage investigation requires verifying time sources and synchronization state, not merely physical link negotiation agreement.

C:

Syslog severity numbers classify importance and can help filter events, but the severity value does not set the clock or align timestamps across routers. Increasing or standardizing severity cannot resolve a device whose time is minutes behind. Event correlation depends on credible timekeeping, so investigate NTP associations and reported synchronization first.

D:

Manually setting clocks once and disabling NTP can lead to drift, especially across devices with different oscillators or reboots. It may provide temporary approximate time in a lab but is not a robust strategy for correlated production incident records. Regular synchronization against trustworthy time sources is more defensible than one-time manual matching.

Question 377

A technician enables ip arp inspection vlan 30 but forgets to establish DHCP snooping bindings for ordinary DHCP clients. What problem is likely on untrusted switchports?

  1. DAI automatically creates unlimited static IP-to-MAC entries for every endpoint
  2. All DHCP messages are encrypted as they traverse the switch
  3. The switch disables all spanning-tree ports in VLAN 30
  4. Legitimate ARP packets may fail validation and be dropped for lack of known bindings

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

DAI on untrusted switchports compares sender IP/MAC information in ARP messages against trusted records such as the DHCP snooping binding table or configured ARP ACLs. If ordinary DHCP clients have no valid bindings, their legitimate ARP requests or replies can fail this validation and be dropped, breaking local or gateway reachability despite proper IP leases. Configure and verify DHCP snooping on the relevant VLAN, trusted server paths, and any required static mappings before enabling inspection. Trust only appropriate infrastructure ports.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Dynamic ARP Inspection does not fabricate unlimited trusted IP-to-MAC mappings when DHCP snooping data is absent. On untrusted ports it ordinarily validates ARP packets against permitted bindings or explicitly configured ARP ACL rules. If those reference mappings are missing, legitimate requests can be treated as invalid. The service needs trustworthy evidence of which IP address belongs to which client MAC and port.

B:

DAI inspects Ethernet ARP messages for spoofing indicators; it is not a mechanism for encrypting DHCP lease traffic. DHCP snooping builds a binding database based on trusted DHCP exchanges and is conceptually separate from encryption. Enabling inspection without valid bindings affects ARP admission, not confidentiality of client address negotiations.

C:

Spanning tree manages Layer 2 loop prevention and port forwarding roles, while Dynamic ARP Inspection governs validation of ARP messages in selected VLANs. A binding-table gap will not inherently disable every STP port in VLAN 30. Instead, hosts may fail ARP neighbor resolution while their links and spanning-tree states still appear operational.

Question 378

Rapid PVST+ is enabled on two redundant uplinks that transport VLANs 10 and 20. Why can their spanning-tree forwarding decisions differ by VLAN?

  1. Each VLAN can elect its own root and use a different spanning-tree topology
  2. PVST applies only once globally to every VLAN, so ports cannot differ
  3. VLAN tagging disables spanning tree on trunks
  4. Each VLAN automatically becomes a separate physical cable

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Rapid PVST+ maintains spanning-tree calculations per VLAN, allowing VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 to elect different root bridges and choose different active or alternate port roles. On the same redundant physical topology, one uplink may forward for VLAN 10 while another serves VLAN 20, depending on priorities and path costs. This enables per-VLAN traffic engineering while retaining loop prevention. Verify each VLAN's actual root and role states rather than assuming every trunk has identical forwarding behavior.

Incorrect Answers

B:

PVST stands for per-VLAN spanning tree, and Rapid PVST+ extends rapid convergence to separate VLAN instances; it is not necessarily one global topology shared by all VLANs. A single global tree would resemble a different STP mode or instance mapping. The question explicitly uses Rapid PVST+ and two VLANs, so differing port roles are expected and valid.

C:

An 802.1Q trunk can carry multiple tagged VLANs while spanning tree still controls whether each VLAN is permitted to forward over redundant paths. Tagging does not automatically disable loop prevention. If VLAN 10 is blocking on one trunk and VLAN 20 is forwarding there, those distinct decisions arise from per-VLAN STP state, not a lack of STP.

D:

VLANs are logical Layer 2 broadcast domains transported over shared physical links; creating VLAN 20 does not produce a new cable. Rapid PVST+ can apply different forwarding roles on the same physical uplinks because it treats VLAN instances separately. The physical topology is shared even when the active logical path differs by VLAN.

Question 379

PC-A at 192.0.2.10/25 and PC-B at 192.0.2.130/24 are connected to the same access VLAN. The address plan requires both to be in one IPv4 subnet without using a router between them, and neither host address may change. Which correction meets that requirement?

  1. Change only PC-B to a /25 mask, leaving PC-A at /25 and both IP addresses unchanged
  2. Retain both existing masks and merely set the same default gateway on each PC
  3. Set both PCs to a /24 mask while retaining their assigned unique IP addresses
  4. Change PC-A to a /26 mask and keep PC-B at /24, without changing their IP addresses

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

With /24 masks on both PCs, 192.0.2.10 and 192.0.2.130 fall inside the common 192.0.2.0–255 network and are both valid conventional host addresses. Because they share one access VLAN, each can resolve the other's MAC address with ARP and exchange packets without an intervening router. Both unique IP addresses are preserved, meeting the strict constraint. Confirm no conflicting address allocation elsewhere when broadening the subnet in a real design.

Incorrect Answers

A:

If PC-B changes to /25 while PC-A keeps /25, PC-A at.10 belongs to 192.0.2.0/25 and PC-B at.130 belongs to 192.0.2.128/25. Those are different subnets, so the hosts do not meet the requirement of a single local IPv4 subnet. Merely making the masks match at /25 fails because their addresses fall on opposite sides of the /25 boundary.

B:

A host decides whether a destination is on-link from its own IP address and subnet mask, not by asking whether two computers share the same default gateway. The original mismatched masks cause PC-A to regard.130 as remote while PC-B at /24 sees.10 as local. Setting the same gateway without fixing masks leaves that asymmetric subnet classification in place.

D:

A /26 mask on PC-A at.10 would put it in 192.0.2.0/26, while PC-B at /24 would remain in 192.0.2.0/24. PC-A would still consider.130 off-link, so the masks would not describe the same subnet boundary. The change narrows PC-A's on-link set rather than reconciling the two hosts.

Question 380

R1 has a backup static route 192.168.80.0/24 via 10.0.0.6 with AD 190, but the active route to that /24 uses OSPF. Which THREE changes could make the floating static eligible for installation? Choose THREE.

  1. The primary OSPF route to 192.168.80.0/24 is withdrawn
  2. The primary OSPF path stays healthy and its distance remains 110
  3. The OSPF route becomes ineligible because its next hop or underlying route is no longer resolvable
  4. The default route is renamed with a different label but the OSPF /24 stays active
  5. A lower metric is assigned to the static route while its AD remains 190 and OSPF stays 110
  6. The administrator deliberately raises the OSPF administrative distance above 190 for this destination/source

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

A floating static route is designed with a higher administrative distance so it loses to a preferred routing source while that source remains eligible. If the OSPF route to the same /24 disappears, the static route can become the best remaining candidate, provided its next hop 10.0.0.6 resolves. This is the intended backup behavior rather than equal-cost load balancing.

C:

If the OSPF entry becomes ineligible because its next hop or prerequisite reachability fails, it may no longer be installed for the /24. The higher-distance floating static can then be considered, assuming its own next hop is reachable and no better route remains. Failure handling depends on the platform's route-resolution and protocol behavior, but absence of the primary is a legitimate trigger for backup selection.

F:

An administrator can deliberately alter administrative-distance policy so the OSPF path for that prefix is less preferred than the static candidate, for example by raising the relevant OSPF distance above 190 when supported. In that situation the floating static may install without a physical OSPF failure, assuming its own next hop resolves. This is a policy-induced change rather than the normal backup trigger; it should be controlled carefully to avoid unintentionally preferring stale static routes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A healthy OSPF route with distance 110 remains preferred over a static candidate with distance 190 for the same destination prefix. Keeping every route and preference unchanged would leave the backup static out of active forwarding. Different metrics within OSPF do not alter the basic comparison to an unrelated floating route's higher administrative distance.

D:

Renaming or re-labeling an unrelated default route does not affect the installed OSPF /24 route's preference or eligibility. The router still chooses the longest matching destination prefix first, and the healthy OSPF route remains a better same-prefix candidate than the floating static. A management label change cannot create the specified primary failure condition.

E:

A static route's metric is not the preference control that ordinarily makes it win against OSPF for the same prefix. With distance 190 on the floating static and distance 110 on OSPF, administrative distance selects OSPF first when both are eligible. Assigning a lower unspecified metric to the static line without changing distance or primary validity does not reverse that source preference.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests