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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 36

Question 350

A configuration review finds service password-encryption enabled and a weak line password. What is the important security limitation of this feature?

  1. It prevents all password guessing attempts on SSH
  2. It creates a unique client certificate for every network operator
  3. It provides reversible obfuscation for applicable passwords, not robust credential hashing or transport security
  4. It disables the router console automatically

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cisco IOS service password-encryption applies weak reversible Type 7-style obfuscation to applicable plaintext password fields, helping prevent casual cleartext display but not providing modern cryptographic protection. The weak line password in this audit can still be recovered or guessed, and the feature does not encrypt the remote management session. Use a strong unique secret or modern password storage where supported, and SSH plus AAA for transport and access control. Explain the distinction between configuration obfuscation and secure authentication.

Incorrect Answers

A:

service password-encryption does not enforce login rate limits or protect against password guessing on SSH sessions. It acts on stored configuration representations for certain password fields rather than on how often a remote user may attempt a login. A weak password remains guessable, even if its displayed configuration text is obscured. Use strong credentials and appropriate AAA or access restrictions for authentication security.

B:

This command does not generate user-specific client certificates or establish a PKI trust relationship for administrators. A certificate-based device login or SSH host-key trust uses separate mechanisms and configuration. Password obscuring in a running configuration should not be confused with cryptographically authenticating each operator as a distinct certificate subject.

D:

The setting does not administratively shut down the console line or disable physical management access. Console enablement, login authentication and transport policy are configured separately under the relevant line contexts. The fact that password text becomes obfuscated in the configuration should not be interpreted as a change to which users can connect or whether the console is available.

Question 351

A router has only one installed default route and no longer prefix that matches a particular destination. Which TWO conditions determine that the default is used for forwarding? Choose TWO.

  1. No more-specific installed route matches the destination
  2. The source device is assigned VLAN 1
  3. The default route has a reachable forwarding path
  4. Every destination on the Internet answers ping
  5. The packet always originated from the router itself

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Normal IP forwarding uses the longest currently installed matching destination prefix. If no more-specific entry matches a particular address, an installed default 0.0.0.0/0 becomes the best available destination match. This is one essential condition for selecting the gateway of last resort, but the chosen default must also resolve to a usable next hop or egress path. A configured line that never installs cannot carry traffic.

C:

A default route is usable only when installed with a resolvable forwarding adjacency or outgoing path; next-hop reachability and route validity must support forwarding. If its next hop is unreachable and the route is withdrawn or unresolved, the configured default line alone may not carry packets. Combined with absence of a longer destination match, this explains why traffic follows the default. Actual policy routing, VRFs and filtering can impose additional conditions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The source host's VLAN number does not decide whether a router selects its default route for a destination. VLAN membership may determine the ingress Layer 3 interface and policy context, but normal route lookup then examines the destination address in the applicable routing table. Being in VLAN 1 is neither necessary nor sufficient for a default-path match.

D:

Whether remote Internet hosts respond to ICMP echo requests is unrelated to selecting a local default route. Some reachable destinations legitimately block ping, while a router may still forward packets toward them. Route lookup relies on installed destination prefixes and next-hop resolution, not on a guarantee that every outside service will answer a diagnostic probe.

E:

A default route can forward transit traffic arriving from downstream hosts as well as packets originated on the router itself, subject to relevant forwarding policy. The source location does not force or prevent use of 0.0.0.0/0. The current question assumes ordinary destination-based forwarding with one installed default and no more-specific match.

Question 352

A proposed design places BPDU Filter on every interswitch link so the switches will not exchange topology messages. Why is this a poor loop-prevention strategy?

  1. It forces LACP to operate in active/passive mode
  2. Suppressing BPDUs can prevent STP from detecting and blocking Layer 2 loops
  3. It disables all VLANs above the normal VLAN range
  4. It automatically changes the trunk native VLAN to VLAN 1

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Spanning Tree Protocol uses BPDUs to discover neighboring bridges, compare bridge IDs and path costs, and choose forwarding versus blocking roles on redundant links. Suppressing those messages on all interswitch connections can hide loops from STP and allow multiple paths to forward simultaneously, creating broadcast storms and MAC flapping. BPDU Filter may have narrowly defined edge-port uses, but applying it across a switch fabric defeats the topology-control mechanism. Preserve BPDUs where loop prevention relies on them.

Incorrect Answers

A:

LACP negotiation uses its own active and passive participation modes and checks compatibility of EtherChannel members. BPDU Filter influences spanning-tree control messages rather than choosing the LACP mode on a port-channel. Suppressing BPDUs across interswitch links does not ensure correct EtherChannel aggregation and introduces loop-detection risk if redundant Layer 2 links are present.

C:

BPDU filtering is not a VLAN-number range control and does not globally disable every extended-range VLAN. VLAN membership and switch configuration determine which tagged frames a trunk transports. The danger described is loss of loop-detection messages, not automatic deletion or deactivation of certain VLAN IDs.

D:

The default native VLAN of a trunk is a separate 802.1Q classification setting, not something that BPDU Filter automatically changes to VLAN 1. Suppressing bridge protocol messages affects spanning-tree visibility and loop prevention; native VLAN configuration affects how untagged Ethernet data frames are handled. Changing one cannot substitute for validating the other.

Question 353

A campus must route between IPv4 VLAN 10 and IPv4 VLAN 20. Which TWO device designs can provide a Layer 3 forwarding gateway for both VLANs? Choose TWO.

  1. An external router using 802.1Q subinterfaces
  2. A Layer 2 access switch with no routed interfaces
  3. A multilayer switch with a routed SVI for each VLAN
  4. A passive network tap connected to the trunk
  5. An unmanaged Ethernet repeater joining the two VLAN access ports

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Router-on-a-stick uses a routed device with 802.1Q subinterfaces, each associated with a VLAN and assigned the corresponding Layer 3 gateway address. Packets from VLAN 10 can reach the router, be routed into the VLAN 20 network and returned over the tagged link when configured correctly. This is one valid inter-VLAN design, though trunk capacity and router throughput should be considered under load.

C:

A multilayer switch can configure a switched virtual interface for each VLAN with a suitable IPv4 gateway address, then route traffic between those connected prefixes when IP routing is enabled. The SVIs must be operational and associated VLANs and access/trunk links properly configured. This accomplishes the same Layer 3 forwarding function as the external router alternative, without requiring a separate router-on-a-stick appliance.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A switch limited to Layer 2 switching can forward frames inside VLAN 10 or VLAN 20, but cannot supply IP gateways for both subnets or route traffic between them. Carrying both VLANs on a trunk does not give the device routing capability. The design must include either a router or a routing-capable multilayer switch to bridge the subnet boundary at Layer 3.

D:

A passive network tap duplicates selected frames for observation and does not provide IP routing, ARP responses for gateway addresses, or forwarding between VLAN subnets. It may help diagnose the inter-VLAN path by feeding a capture system, but it cannot replace the Layer 3 device that actually forwards packets. Monitoring capability and gateway functionality are distinct roles.

E:

An unmanaged Ethernet repeater regenerates a physical signal or otherwise extends a shared Layer 2 medium and cannot keep separate routed VLAN gateways. Inter-VLAN communication needs forwarding decisions based on IP destination addresses, not electrical frame repetition. Attaching a repeater to VLAN access ports would not create an addressable routing interface and could compromise segmentation.

Question 354

R1 has a static route to 10.99.0.0/16 through 192.0.2.2, and R2 is already the adjacent next hop. A user on R2 cannot return traffic to an R1-only network. Which change is normally required for bidirectional reachability?

  1. Delete every static route on R1
  2. Make the two routers use the same hostname
  3. Enable BPDU Guard on the inter-router routed link
  4. Ensure R2 has a valid route back to the source network behind R1

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

IP communication requires a usable route in each direction when hosts behind R1 and R2 exchange packets. R1 already has a static path for 10.99.0.0/16 through R2, but return traffic on R2 must also find a matching destination prefix for the source network behind R1. Add or verify a suitable reverse static or dynamically learned route, along with any intervening filters and host gateways. The forward path alone does not prove two-way connectivity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Deleting every static route from R1 would remove the configured path toward 10.99.0.0/16 and likely worsen reachability. The problem described is one-way communication: outbound packets can reach R2's side, but R2 lacks or cannot use a path to the network behind R1. Preserve valid forward routes while repairing reverse reachability, including any appropriate return gateway.

B:

Hostnames identify routers for management and routing-protocol logging, but they do not install a route to the opposite source subnet. Giving R1 and R2 identical names may actually confuse operators and inventory systems. IP packets are forwarded using destination-prefix tables rather than device name equality; the return path requires a routing entry or suitable dynamic advertisement.

C:

BPDU Guard is a Layer 2 edge protection feature that can shut down a port receiving unexpected spanning-tree BPDUs. It does not create a reverse IPv4 route over a routed inter-router link and may be inappropriate on infrastructure-facing ports. The user needs bidirectional IP connectivity, not the elimination of STP messages on a path that is already routed.

Question 355

Which TWO statements are valid for a software-defined fabric with logical overlays and an IP underlay? Choose TWO.

  1. Underlay reachability is needed for packets to travel between encapsulation endpoints
  2. A logical overlay makes every underlay link failure invisible to all traffic
  3. Fabric policy always requires all endpoints to share VLAN 1
  4. Overlay segmentation can be maintained separately from the physical transit topology
  5. All controller northbound APIs operate only as Layer 2 broadcasts

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

An overlay uses encapsulation endpoints to carry logical tenant segments between physical fabric nodes. Those endpoints must have an IP-reachable transport underlay so the encapsulated packets can traverse leaf/spine links. If the underlay has no valid route to a remote tunnel endpoint, overlay traffic cannot magically reach it. The architecture separates responsibilities but still depends on basic physical and routed reachability.

D:

Overlay segmentation represents logical network membership independently of which physical fabric uplink carries the encapsulated packets. This lets a tenant segment span selected endpoints while the transport underlay uses its own routing and failure-recovery model. Policies and virtual network identifiers operate above, but depend on, the physical topology. The separation does not erase security, MTU, and reachability requirements of the network beneath it.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Logical segmentation does not make every failure in the underlying transport invisible. Redundant underlay routing can reroute around a failed link, but a large outage or loss of endpoint reachability will interrupt overlay communication. Encapsulation adds an abstraction, not a guarantee of perpetual delivery independent of physical links and control-plane convergence.

C:

Segment identifiers and overlay policies can isolate workloads across a range of physical attachment points and do not force all devices or tenants into VLAN 1. In fact, overlays commonly exist to support flexible segmentation without a single flat broadcast domain. The underlay can be routed and its link VLANs or subnets need not mirror tenant segment numbering.

E:

Northbound APIs usually expose controller functions or intent to applications and management systems; they are not intrinsically Layer 2 broadcast traffic. They often use authenticated HTTP-based interfaces or other network protocols and can operate across routed IP networks. Confusing an API direction with Ethernet broadcast would prevent understanding how applications control a fabric without being on every fabric link.

Question 356

A site plans nightly switch configuration exports over an untrusted transit network. A technician suggests plain TFTP or ordinary FTP. What is the defensible assessment?

  1. Plain TFTP is preferred because it digitally signs every transferred configuration
  2. Ordinary FTP offers end-to-end confidentiality automatically without any extra mechanism
  3. Neither protocol supports transferring configuration files at all
  4. Use an authenticated encrypted alternative such as SCP/SFTP, or protect the transport, instead of exposing plain transfers

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Network device configurations may contain addresses, usernames, access policies and sensitive secret representations, so sending them across untrusted transit calls for confidentiality and authentication. Where supported, SCP or SFTP use an SSH-protected channel; an appropriately secured tunnel can protect a transport that would otherwise be plaintext. Check device and backup-server capabilities, credential handling and file-integrity verification before scheduling the export. Simple TFTP or ordinary FTP do not provide comparable protection by themselves.

Incorrect Answers

A:

TFTP is a lightweight transfer protocol that normally provides neither strong user authentication nor cryptographic signatures for every configuration file. Its simplicity can be useful on carefully isolated, trusted networks, but sending device configurations over untrusted transit risks interception or modification. A configuration backup contains sensitive details, so assuming TFTP digitally signs it would create unjustified confidence in integrity and confidentiality.

B:

Ordinary FTP transmits commands and data without modern end-to-end encryption, unless protected by a separate mechanism such as TLS in an appropriate variant. It does not automatically keep switch configuration passwords, management addresses or secrets confidential across untrusted infrastructure. A plain FTP service is therefore not the preferred method when transit links can be observed by outsiders.

C:

Both TFTP and FTP can transfer configuration files; Cisco platforms and backup systems have historically supported such workflows. Their basic file-copy functionality is precisely why the proposal sounds plausible. The objection is the security of the untrusted transit path, not an inherent inability to move bytes. Choose a protected channel rather than asserting these protocols are incapable of file transfer.

Question 357

An IPv4 ACL needs to match exactly the source block 192.168.10.32 through 192.168.10.63. What network address and wildcard mask should the ACE use?

  1. 192.168.10.32 0.0.0.15
  2. 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.31
  3. 192.168.10.32 255.255.255.224
  4. 192.168.10.32 0.0.0.31

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The range 192.168.10.32–192.168.10.63 is exactly one aligned /27 IPv4 block, containing 32 addresses. A wildcard of 0.0.0.31 leaves the first 27 bits significant and ignores the final five, so using network 192.168.10.32 matches precisely those sources. This is an address-and-wildcard match suitable for a source clause in an ACL; the ACL type, permit/deny action, placement and direction remain separate policy decisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The wildcard 0.0.0.15 ignores four host bits, matching a sixteen-address block from 192.168.10.32 through .47. The requested source range extends through .63, so this ACL entry would omit half the intended addresses. The correct wildcard must ignore five low bits for a 32-address /27 block, not just four.

B:

Network 192.168.10.0 with wildcard 0.0.0.31 identifies addresses .0 through .31, the neighboring lower /27 range. The mask size is correct for a 32-address block, but the base network is wrong. Matching the right wildcard against the wrong aligned address will allow or block the wrong clients.

C:

The value 255.255.255.224 is the conventional subnet mask for a /27 network, not the inverse wildcard syntax expected in an IOS IPv4 ACL entry. An ACL wildcard of 0.0.0.31 tells IOS to ignore the final five address bits. Confusing subnet masks with their inverses can produce very different match behavior and break access control.

Question 358

On a newly initialized Cisco Catalyst switch, interface Gi1/0/19 is a default Layer 2 access port with no explicit access VLAN configured. An untagged workstation frame arrives. To which VLAN does the switch assign it by default?

  1. VLAN 0
  2. VLAN 1002
  3. VLAN 1
  4. VLAN 4094

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

On a normally initialized Cisco Catalyst access switch, the default access VLAN is VLAN 1 unless an operator changes it or the platform has a different applied provisioning policy. The untagged Ethernet frame arriving on Gi1/0/19 is therefore classified into VLAN 1 for Layer 2 forwarding. This is a default behavior, not a recommendation to leave production clients in the default VLAN; security policy often uses dedicated access segments. Verify show interfaces ... switchport when device templates may override defaults.

Incorrect Answers

A:

VLAN 0 is not the ordinary default user-access VLAN on a Cisco Catalyst switch. IEEE priority-tagged frames can use a VLAN ID field of zero to indicate priority handling, but that does not create an access VLAN zero for untagged workstation traffic. A default access port normally classifies frames into its configured access VLAN, which on a freshly initialized switch is VLAN 1.

B:

VLAN 1002 is associated with legacy Token Ring defaults on some Catalyst systems and is not the normal untagged data VLAN for a factory-default Ethernet access port. An unconfigured Gi1/0/19 should not silently place a workstation into VLAN 1002. The question explicitly specifies a default Layer 2 access port with no custom membership applied.

D:

VLAN ID 4094 is the top of the normal 802.1Q usable VLAN ID range on many systems, not the universal default access membership. New access ports do not automatically assign untagged clients to the highest permitted VLAN number. The intended answer depends on the port's default access-VLAN configuration, and the question states none has been added.

Question 359

A host has 10.40.18.70/28. Which directed broadcast address belongs to that exact subnet?

  1. 10.40.18.64 is the directed broadcast because it begins the containing /28
  2. 10.40.18.78 is the directed broadcast because it is the last currently assigned host
  3. 10.40.18.79 is the /28 subnet's broadcast address
  4. 10.40.18.95 is the directed broadcast because it ends the next 32-address block

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A /28 subnet uses 16 addresses, so the block containing 10.40.18.70 begins at.64 and ends at.79. The high endpoint.79 has all four /28 host bits set to one, making 10.40.18.79 the directed broadcast address under conventional IPv4 subnetting. Ordinary host addresses occupy.65 through.78;.64 is the network ID. The calculation follows from the /28 increment and does not depend on which endpoints are currently connected.

Incorrect Answers

A:

In the /28 block that contains 10.40.18.70, the address 10.40.18.64 has all host bits zero, making it the network identifier. It is not the directed broadcast; the broadcast has all four host bits one. Treating the first address as broadcast reverses the conventional subnet-endpoint rule and would misidentify the gateway's host range.

B:

The address.78 is a valid conventional host address in the subnet 10.40.18.64/28, whether or not a device has already been assigned it. Current assignment patterns do not determine a broadcast address; the subnet mask and boundary do. The highest numeric address in this 16-address block is.79, not.78.

D:

Address 10.40.18.95 belongs to the following 10.40.18.80/28 block, which spans.80 through.95. It is indeed a broadcast endpoint, but for a different /28 subnet than the one containing.70. Choosing a plausible broadcast from a neighboring block ignores the requirement to find the network that includes the specified host.

Question 360

No router-id is configured on an OSPFv2 process. It starts with loopback IPv4 addresses 10.10.10.1 and 10.10.10.99 and physical Gi0/0 address 203.0.113.200, all operational. Which router ID will IOS normally select?

  1. 203.0.113.200 because it is the largest IPv4 address on any interface
  2. 10.10.10.1 because it is the first loopback created
  3. 0.0.0.0 because OSPF never chooses a router ID without manual configuration
  4. 10.10.10.99 because it is the highest IPv4 loopback address

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

At OSPFv2 process initialization without an explicit router ID, Cisco IOS ordinarily selects the numerically highest IPv4 address on an active loopback interface; only without eligible loopbacks does it consider physical interface addresses. Of 10.10.10.1 and 10.10.10.99, the second is higher, so 10.10.10.99 becomes the router ID despite Gi0/0 using 203.0.113.200. Once selected, the ID may persist until OSPF is restarted even if interfaces later change.

Incorrect Answers

A:

When loopbacks exist at OSPF process startup, IOS normally prefers the highest IPv4 address on an operational loopback interface over all physical-interface addresses. The physical Gi0/0 address is numerically larger than the two loopbacks, but does not take precedence because the loopback-selection step comes first. Without loopbacks, the highest suitable physical IPv4 address would normally be considered instead.

B:

OSPF's automatic router ID selection does not usually use the order in which loopbacks were created. It chooses the highest IPv4 loopback address that meets the selection rules at process initialization. Here 10.10.10.99 is higher than 10.10.10.1, so the first-added loopback is not the selected router identifier unless explicitly configured or previously retained.

C:

OSPF can automatically determine a router ID from eligible IPv4 interface addresses if none is explicitly configured. A router with usable loopbacks should not default to 0.0.0.0 solely because a manual router-id command is absent. Router ID changes may require a process reset to take effect, but the stated process is starting fresh with all three addresses operational.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests