Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 37
Question 360
No router-id is configured on an OSPFv2 process. It starts with loopback IPv4 addresses 10.10.10.1 and 10.10.10.99 and physical Gi0/0 address 203.0.113.200, all operational. Which router ID will IOS normally select?
- 203.0.113.200 because it is the largest IPv4 address on any interface
- 10.10.10.1 because it is the first loopback created
- 0.0.0.0 because OSPF never chooses a router ID without manual configuration
- 10.10.10.99 because it is the highest IPv4 loopback address
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:At OSPFv2 process initialization without an explicit router ID, Cisco IOS ordinarily selects the numerically highest IPv4 address on an active loopback interface; only without eligible loopbacks does it consider physical interface addresses. Of 10.10.10.1 and 10.10.10.99, the second is higher, so 10.10.10.99 becomes the router ID despite Gi0/0 using 203.0.113.200. Once selected, the ID may persist until OSPF is restarted even if interfaces later change.
Incorrect Answers
A:When loopbacks exist at OSPF process startup, IOS normally prefers the highest IPv4 address on an operational loopback interface over all physical-interface addresses. The physical Gi0/0 address is numerically larger than the two loopbacks, but does not take precedence because the loopback-selection step comes first. Without loopbacks, the highest suitable physical IPv4 address would normally be considered instead.
B:OSPF's automatic router ID selection does not usually use the order in which loopbacks were created. It chooses the highest IPv4 loopback address that meets the selection rules at process initialization. Here 10.10.10.99 is higher than 10.10.10.1, so the first-added loopback is not the selected router identifier unless explicitly configured or previously retained.
C:OSPF can automatically determine a router ID from eligible IPv4 interface addresses if none is explicitly configured. A router with usable loopbacks should not default to 0.0.0.0 solely because a manual router-id command is absent. Router ID changes may require a process reset to take effect, but the stated process is starting fresh with all three addresses operational.
Question 361
An existing trunk currently allows VLANs 10, 20, 30 and 999. Policy requires removing only VLAN 999 from this allowed set without changing the other three VLANs. Which interface command meets that constraint?
- switchport trunk allowed vlan 999
- switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 999
- switchport trunk native vlan 999
- switchport access vlan 999
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 999 syntax removes VLAN 999 from the existing permitted VLAN set without replacing the rest of the list. Because 10, 20 and 30 must remain, this incremental operation is preferable to re-entering an incomplete replacement list. Confirm the trunk's resulting allowed VLANs with show interfaces trunk, and make sure relevant peer and spanning-tree policies still allow the desired traffic. The command changes permitted VLAN membership, not the native VLAN.
Incorrect Answers
A:The command without an add, remove, or similar incremental keyword replaces the trunk's entire allowed VLAN list with VLAN 999 on supported IOS switchports. That would leave the obsolete VLAN permitted while removing 10, 20 and 30, the reverse of the requirement. When adjusting an existing trunk, understand whether the syntax replaces or modifies its current list before applying it.
C:The trunk native VLAN setting controls which VLAN receives untagged frames on a particular 802.1Q trunk; it does not remove VLAN 999 from the permitted list. If configured, it could alter handling of untagged frames while the unwanted VLAN remains allowed. The scenario requires list membership to change, so modifying native VLAN would create an unrelated forwarding risk instead of meeting policy.
D:switchport access vlan 999 assigns a data access VLAN in access-port mode, rather than editing the VLANs transported by an operational multi-VLAN trunk. On a trunk, such access settings may be irrelevant to the active forwarding role. It neither removes VLAN 999 from the trunk allowed list nor preserves the three intended VLANs in the requested manner.
Question 362
A router has two operational routed interfaces. Which TWO show ip route code-to-source associations are valid on common Cisco IOS output? Choose TWO.
- C denotes a directly connected network
- S denotes a route learned by OSPFv2
- L denotes a remote route learned from RIP
- O denotes a route learned by OSPF
- R denotes a route set by the router’s static configuration
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:The route code C identifies a directly connected IPv4 network arising from an active routed interface and its configured address/prefix. For example, an up/up interface numbered 192.0.2.1/24 can contribute a connected route for 192.0.2.0/24. That differs from a separately configured static route or an advertisement learned from a neighbor. The connected prefix describes on-link reachability, while a related L code can identify the router's own interface address.
D:The O routing-table code denotes a route learned through OSPF in common Cisco IOS IPv4 output. Such an entry typically shows an OSPF administrative distance and metric alongside its next hop. The code is different from C for directly connected or S for static, so it helps identify the control-plane source of reachability. Extended OSPF route types may use additional suffixes or codes depending on the path and platform.
Incorrect Answers
B:Cisco IOS uses S for a statically configured route, not an OSPF-learned route. A static route may specify an exit interface, next-hop IP address and optional administrative distance. Seeing both a prefix and next-hop in an entry does not prove which protocol learned it; the route code directly identifies its source. OSPF uses its own distinct code in the table.
C:The L route code marks a local host prefix associated with an address assigned to the router's own interface, usually as a /32 IPv4 entry. RIP-learned routes are represented by the R code and have protocol-derived next hops. Confusing a local owned address with a remotely learned destination can lead to wrong forwarding troubleshooting conclusions.
E:The R code normally identifies a RIP-learned IPv4 route, not an administrator's static route statement. A configured static prefix would carry S when installed under ordinary circumstances. The fact that an administrator could have configured RIP does not make an R entry static; route-code semantics describe the source of the installed prefix.
Question 363
A design document maps IPv6 prefixes to broad address classes. Which THREE descriptions are correct? Choose THREE.
- fc00::/7 identifies unique-local unicast address space
- fe80::/10 identifies publicly routable global-unicast addresses
- ff00::/8 is the IPv6 multicast address family
- ::1/128 is the IPv6 address used to send packets to every host in a subnet
- 2000::/3 is the broad IPv6 global-unicast allocation range
- ::/128 is the standard IPv6 all-nodes multicast group
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Unique-local unicast IPv6 addresses belong to fc00::/7, with locally generated allocations commonly using prefixes beginning fd. They can be routed inside an organization or between cooperating private networks but are not designated as globally Internet-reachable public addresses. This is distinct from a link-local fe80 address, which should not cross a routed link. Recognizing the prefix family prevents accidental assumptions about external reachability.
C:IPv6 multicast addresses start with the high-order ff byte and occupy ff00::/8. Additional bits indicate scope and multicast flags, allowing destinations such as link-scoped groups used by neighbor discovery. They represent delivery to a group of receivers rather than a single globally reachable interface. IPv6 relies heavily on multicast in places where IPv4 might have used broadcast. This does not imply delivery to every host for every multicast destination.
E:The broad 2000::/3 family is the global-unicast address-space structure used for publicly routed IPv6 allocations. That does not imply every more-specific prefix inside it is publicly routable, because special-use blocks such as 2001:db8::/32 are reserved for documentation. Classification by high bits is useful, but the specific prefix's allocation status must still be checked before claiming Internet reachability.
Incorrect Answers
B:fe80::/10 is the IPv6 link-local unicast range, used to communicate with neighbors on a particular link. Routers do not forward link-local destination packets across arbitrary routed interfaces. A global-unicast address commonly lies in 2000::/3, not in the fe80 family. Mistaking link-local for globally routable can make next-hop configuration or endpoint testing invalid.
D:::1/128 is the single IPv6 loopback address that returns traffic to the local host's own protocol stack. It does not represent all hosts on a link and cannot be used as a multicast destination. The link-local all-nodes multicast address is ff02::1. A loopback self-test should not be confused with distributing traffic to an entire subnet.
F:The all-zero address ::/128 means unspecified, often used during interface initialization or in wildcard socket bindings. It is not multicast and does not select all nodes on a link; such destinations have the ff family. Treating an unspecified address as an all-nodes group could lead to malformed application destinations or incorrect network-design documentation.
Question 364
A port-security interface is error-disabled after an unauthorized MAC violates the default shutdown action. What does the status most directly indicate?
- All frames are successfully forwarded but only logged
- Spanning tree elected the interface as root port
- The switch disabled the interface in response to the configured security violation action
- The switch converted the interface into an IPv4 routed port
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Under the common port-security shutdown violation action, detecting a source MAC that breaches the configured security conditions can place the interface into an error-disabled state. This protects the network by stopping traffic from that port rather than merely dropping the offending MAC while leaving everything up. The operator should investigate the unexpected device, review secure MAC limits and violation counts, and recover the port only according to approved procedure. The condition is not evidence of automatic route conversion.
Incorrect Answers
A:The port-security restrict violation mode can drop unauthorized source frames while retaining the interface up and incrementing violation counters or logging, depending on platform behavior. That is not the state described: the switch explicitly reports error-disabled after a shutdown action. A disabled access interface cannot continue forwarding all legitimate client frames until recovery occurs according to configured policy.
B:Spanning-tree root-port election selects the best forwarding path toward the root bridge on a nonroot switch, not a reason to error-disable an access interface for a new source MAC. STP and port security are independent features with different operational indicators. The question identifies a configured security violation as the trigger for disabled state, not a topology role change.
D:A security violation on a Layer 2 access port does not automatically apply no switchport or transform it into a routed IPv4 interface. Error-disabled means the platform administratively blocks or suspends port operation in response to a detected problem. Interface switching versus routing mode is configured separately, so treating this as an automatic Layer 3 conversion would misdiagnose the event.
Question 365
An API request uses HTTP status 401 after the client omits its expected authorization token. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
- Authentication credentials are absent, invalid, or otherwise not accepted for the request
- The requested object was created successfully
- The request is forbidden despite an already established valid authenticated identity in all cases
- The router has selected an OSPF designated router
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:An HTTP 401 response commonly indicates that the request lacks acceptable authentication credentials, such as a missing, expired or invalid bearer token. In this scenario the client omitted the authorization token entirely, so the service cannot establish the expected caller identity. Supply a supported token using the documented authentication flow and check its scope and expiration. A 401 is an application-layer response, which also shows the server was reachable enough to return an HTTP result.
Incorrect Answers
B:Resource creation usually returns a success status such as HTTP 201 Created or another documented 2xx code, not 401 Unauthorized. The client received an authentication failure after omitting credentials, so no successful creation should be inferred. Always inspect the API's response body and method semantics before assuming a configuration object was written.
C:HTTP 403 Forbidden more commonly expresses that a server understood an authenticated request but refuses the operation because of authorization or policy. HTTP 401 can occur when authentication is missing or unacceptable; it does not prove a fully valid identity was established in all cases. Here the omitted bearer token is direct evidence of a credential problem, not an already authenticated caller with insufficient privileges.
D:OSPF DR selection is a routing protocol control-plane event occurring on suitable broadcast network segments and does not determine HTTP API authorization. The response is generated by an application endpoint handling a client request, not by the OSPF election mechanism. A network can have a perfectly healthy DR while an API call fails because the caller omitted its token.
Question 366
After adding an inside-source NAT policy, an engineer wants to inspect actual inside-local to inside-global bindings, including protocols and ports where applicable. Which EXEC command is the direct check?
show ip nat translationsshow interfaces trunkshow ip ospf neighborshow mac address-table
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:show ip nat translations displays active IPv4 NAT translation entries on a supported Cisco IOS router, including inside-local and inside-global addresses and, for port-overload cases, protocol and port mappings. It therefore shows whether actual traffic has created expected bindings instead of merely confirming that a policy line exists. Generate controlled test traffic if needed and compare entries to the intended inside/outside roles. Translation tables can age or clear, so an empty view does not by itself prove the policy was never configured.
Incorrect Answers
B:Trunk-interface output reports 802.1Q VLAN forwarding and allowed-list details, not NAT mapping entries. An uplink might carry correctly tagged VLANs while packets still fail to translate at the routed edge. The request specifically concerns inside-local to inside-global IP and port bindings, so a Layer 2 trunk status command would not answer it.
C:show ip ospf neighbor identifies routing-protocol adjacencies and their state. Those neighbors help determine which destinations are reachable, but they do not display source-address rewrite entries created by inside NAT rules. A stable OSPF neighbor can coexist with a broken or missing translation policy; examine NAT state directly.
D:A MAC address table maps Ethernet destination MAC addresses to ports within a VLAN; it is not the router's stateful address/port translation database. NAT bindings relate IP addresses and sometimes transport ports across inside and outside address spaces. Looking at learned Layer 2 neighbors cannot confirm those rewrite associations.
Question 367
A remote IPv6 destination must be reached using a static route over a point-to-point routed link. Which TWO conditions are important before calling that setup functional? Choose TWO.
- Configure an IPv4-only
ip default-gateway and avoid IPv6 routing - Ensure the destination prefix and next-hop/interface information identify a reachable forwarding path
- Disable IPv6 unicast routing globally to force IPv6 forwarding on every interface
- Use the switch management VLAN ID as an IPv6 destination prefix
- Enable IPv6 unicast routing on the transit router when required by its platform
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:An IPv6 static route must identify the intended destination prefix and a usable next-hop address or outgoing interface under the platform's syntax rules. Next-hop resolution is especially important when a link-local next hop requires the interface to distinguish its scope. Merely entering a syntactically valid line will not forward packets if the neighbor is unreachable. Confirm the installed IPv6 route and neighbor reachability before calling the setup functional.
E:A router forwarding IPv6 packets between networks must have IPv6 unicast routing enabled where Cisco IOS requires an explicit global setting. The existence of a configured static route or interface IPv6 address is not always sufficient by itself for transit forwarding. Check the device family and enable ipv6 unicast-routing as applicable, then validate the static prefix and resolved next hop in show ipv6 route. This complements, rather than replaces, correct route information.
Incorrect Answers
A:ip default-gateway is an IPv4-oriented management setting on devices not routing IP and cannot replace an IPv6 static destination route. A transit router required to forward IPv6 needs the appropriate IPv6 address family and routing functionality. Avoiding IPv6 routing would make the stated remote IPv6 destination unreachable despite a valid IPv4 management gateway.
C:On platforms requiring ipv6 unicast-routing to forward transit IPv6 packets, disabling it would stop routed forwarding rather than force it to occur. Assigning IPv6 addresses on interfaces can allow local communication without enabling forwarding between them. The question describes a transit router, so its global IPv6 routing state must support packet delivery.
D:A switch management VLAN ID is a Layer 2 segment identifier, not an IPv6 destination prefix. A static route requires a network address and prefix length such as 2001:db8:aa::/64, plus appropriate next-hop information. Using a VLAN number where an IPv6 prefix belongs would confuse broadcast-domain classification with Layer 3 routing destinations.
Question 368
The network team wants a command that requests a Catalyst switch to become the primary Rapid PVST+ root bridge for VLAN 20 using Cisco’s convenient macro rather than manually calculating a bridge priority. Which command matches?
- switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
- spanning-tree vlan 20 portfast
- spanning-tree vlan 20 root primary
- spanning-tree vlan 20 bpduguard enable
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:On supported Catalyst platforms, spanning-tree vlan 20 root primary is Cisco's convenience macro for selecting a bridge priority intended to make this switch the root for that VLAN. It adjusts priority based on current topology rather than requiring the operator to calculate a numeric value manually. Verify the resulting Bridge ID and elected root with show spanning-tree vlan 20; a later lower-priority bridge or topology change could still affect election. This command is distinct from PortFast or BPDU guarding.
Incorrect Answers
A:switchport trunk allowed vlan 20 is a VLAN membership filter for an Ethernet trunk; it cannot request that the local bridge be elected the spanning-tree root for VLAN 20. Even a trunk that carries only VLAN 20 can have a root bridge elsewhere in the topology. The election depends on bridge ID and priority, not allowed VLAN lists.
B:PortFast controls rapid transition of suitable edge ports to forwarding; it does not adjust the bridge's priority for root election. Applying PortFast to interswitch links can be inappropriate if those links create loops. The requirement is explicitly to make the local switch the preferred VLAN 20 root using Cisco's convenience syntax, not to accelerate one edge port.
D:BPDU Guard protects appropriate edge ports by disabling them if unexpected spanning-tree BPDUs arrive. It does not lower the switch's VLAN 20 bridge priority and cannot guarantee it wins root election. Misapplying BPDU Guard to an interswitch link could shut down a needed connection, so it is unrelated to the macro requested.
Question 369
A crowded warehouse Wi-Fi network suffers intermittent drops and slow throughput. Which THREE survey or configuration practices have a defensible role in identifying and reducing RF contention? Choose THREE.
- Survey measured RSSI and SNR at actual client operating locations
- Hide all SSIDs and regard this as a replacement for WPA encryption
- Assess channel reuse and use a measured, nonoverlapping channel plan
- Force every AP to transmit at maximum power regardless of cell overlap
- Use spectrum analysis when non-Wi-Fi energy is suspected
- Select the widest channel supported on every AP regardless of available channels
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Measuring RSSI and signal-to-noise ratio at the actual places where warehouse clients operate reveals weak coverage and noisy locations that an office-floor plan might miss. Those results can distinguish an inadequate desired signal from high interference before settings are changed. Survey positions should reflect shelves, machinery and roaming paths; one strong measurement near an AP does not prove client coverage in obstructed aisles.
C:A measured channel plan assigns compatible, appropriately spaced channels to neighboring AP cells and considers reuse distances, channel width and local interference. This reduces unnecessary co-channel or adjacent-channel contention compared with automatically placing every radio on an overlapping wide channel. Use site measurements and client capacity demands rather than assuming a single universal channel plan will fit all warehouse spaces.
E:Spectrum analysis is valuable when repeated drops may come from non-802.11 energy such as machinery, microwave sources or other transmitters. A normal Wi-Fi scan might identify neighboring SSIDs but miss some non-Wi-Fi interferers and transient signatures. Correlating spectrum observations with service interruptions helps decide whether channel moves, shielding, relocation or source remediation will matter. It complements, rather than replaces, active client surveys.
Incorrect Answers
B:Hiding SSID advertisements does not encrypt 802.11 data frames or replace WPA2/WPA3 authentication. It also does not directly reduce congestion and non-Wi-Fi interference in a crowded warehouse. The WLAN name may be discovered through other management exchanges, so relying on obscurity introduces a security misconception while leaving the reported RF performance problem intact.
D:Forcing all APs to maximum transmit power expands overlapping coverage cells and can increase airtime contention, especially when clients transmit at lower power. It does not necessarily fix low SNR through steel shelving or interference from other devices. Coordinated power and placement can produce better bidirectional communication than indiscriminately raising every radio's output.
F:Choosing the widest channel for every AP consumes more spectrum per cell and reduces how many independent channels are available for reuse. That can worsen contention in a crowded warehouse even if peak single-client bandwidth rises under clean conditions. Channel width should be selected according to measured density, application demand and adjacent-cell overlap, not as an unconditional maximum.
Question 370
An administrator creates ip access-list extended STAFF-WEB and adds ACEs. Which TWO steps confirm it is actually filtering incoming VLAN 25 traffic as intended? Choose TWO.
- Ensure only an unrelated standard ACL is applied outbound on the WAN
- Apply
ip access-group STAFF-WEB in on the appropriate VLAN 25 Layer 3 interface - Enable spanning-tree portfast on the VLAN 25 gateway
- Change the WLAN SSID to STAFF-WEB
- Inspect the interface ACL association and matching counters after controlled test traffic
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Creating an extended named ACL does not apply it to any packets until it is attached to an appropriate interface and direction. Using ip access-group STAFF-WEB in under the routed VLAN 25 interface causes arriving packets to be checked against its ordered ACEs before forwarding, subject to platform behavior. Confirm this is actually the intended inbound traffic boundary and that the ACL includes necessary permits to avoid unintended implicit denial.
E:After attaching the ACL in the intended direction, inspect the running interface association and access-list match counters while sending controlled allowed and denied test packets. This shows that traffic actually hits the expected ACEs instead of relying on a configuration file alone. Counter behavior depends on platform implementation and hardware acceleration, so corroborate with controlled reachability and supported platform diagnostics. The test must include both prohibited and legitimate flows.
Incorrect Answers
A:An unrelated outbound standard ACL on the WAN is not equivalent to applying the named extended STAFF-WEB rule to inbound traffic from VLAN 25. Standard ACLs normally match source IPs and cannot express the same detailed transport and destination rules as an extended list. Even if that WAN policy affects some flows later, it does not prove the intended VLAN 25 ingress filtering is active.
C:Spanning-tree PortFast governs Layer 2 state transitions on suitable host-facing switchports; it does not bind an IPv4 ACL to the routed VLAN gateway. VLAN 25 clients might forward at Layer 2 normally while the extended security policy remains unused. The question is about applying and confirming IP packet filtering, not STP access-port convergence.
D:Renaming a wireless SSID to STAFF-WEB only changes the WLAN identifier seen by clients. It does not reference a named IOS access-list object or attach its ACEs to ingress VLAN 25 routing. Even an SSID with the same text as an ACL has no automatic relationship unless explicitly integrated through a supported controller policy, which is absent here.