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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 31

Question 300

A technician sees O 172.16.0.0/16 [110/80] via 10.0.0.2, 00:00:14, Gi0/1. Which THREE pieces of information can be read directly from this line? Choose THREE.

  1. The route was learned through OSPF
  2. 10.0.0.2 is the complete destination subnet
  3. The administrative distance shown is 110
  4. The routing metric shown is 110
  5. The destination prefix is 172.16.0.0/16
  6. The route necessarily identifies the OSPF designated router as Gi0/1

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

The leading O code in an IOS IPv4 route table identifies OSPF-learned reachability. It describes the route's source protocol, independently of the destination subnet and outgoing link. The bracket also shows a typical OSPF administrative distance of 110, but the code alone identifies the family. The router must still have a usable next hop and working interface for packets to reach the destination. This is one of the three fields the question explicitly asks to interpret.

C:

The bracket [110/80] follows IOS's administrative-distance/metric convention for this route, so 110 is the administrative distance. This value is a route-source preference used when comparing eligible sources for the same destination prefix. It is not the OSPF cost, which appears after the slash as 80. The line directly supplies both values, and reading their positions correctly is important when explaining why one routing source is installed.

E:

The destination prefix is the network printed immediately after the O route code: 172.16.0.0/16. That prefix covers IPv4 addresses whose first sixteen bits match the network, subject to normal longest-prefix routing. The next hop and interface are separately identified as 10.0.0.2 and Gi0/1. The syntax therefore supplies an explicit destination network, rather than merely a gateway, and the prefix is one of the three directly readable facts.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The address 10.0.0.2 appears after via, meaning it is the next-hop IP toward the destination, not the destination subnet itself. The actual destination prefix is printed before the brackets as 172.16.0.0/16. Confusing next-hop and destination fields would make route interpretation and troubleshooting inaccurate. The next hop can belong to a different connected transit network because its role is to forward packets toward the remote prefix.

D:

The value 110 in [110/80] is the administrative distance of the OSPF route, not the OSPF metric. The metric is 80, the number after the slash, and helps select among appropriate OSPF paths. Administrative distance is used for route-source preference comparisons. Selecting 110 as metric would swap these distinct concepts even though both are numerical. The question requires interpreting the actual cost field as part of IOS route notation.

F:

Gi0/1 at the end of the route line identifies the local egress interface associated with forwarding toward next hop 10.0.0.2. It does not by itself name the OSPF designated router, which is a separate role elected on certain multiaccess network types. A particular neighbor might be DR, but that cannot be concluded solely from this interface field. The question asks for information directly encoded in the route line, so the claimed DR identity is unsupported.

Question 301

R1 has two equal-cost OSPF next hops installed for 198.18.16.0/20. During testing, packets of one long-lived conversation usually use Gi0/0 while other conversations are forwarded over Gi0/1. Which explanation is consistent with common Cisco CEF load-sharing behavior?

  1. CEF can hash packet header fields when selecting among equal-cost next hops, so a particular flow can stay on one path while other flows use another
  2. OSPF requires packet-by-packet alternation between interfaces to preserve equal cost
  3. The second path is prohibited because every routing table accepts only one next hop per prefix
  4. The switch randomly rewrites destination IP addresses to make the flows use different paths

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cisco Express Forwarding commonly selects among installed equal-cost next hops using a hash of packet-flow fields, such as the source and destination addresses and sometimes transport ports. Consequently, successive packets in one conversation can stay on Gi0/0 while another flow chooses Gi0/1. This balances flows without requiring every packet to alternate links. The two OSPF paths must both be installed and eligible for equal-cost multipath in the forwarding table.

Incorrect Answers

B:

OSPF calculates routes and their costs; it does not require the forwarding engine to alternate every successive packet across equal-cost interfaces. Per-packet load sharing can reorder frames within a transport conversation and is not the typical CEF per-flow selection described. The observation that one long-lived conversation largely remains on Gi0/0 is consistent with a stable flow hash, not a compulsory packet-by-packet toggle.

C:

A router can install multiple eligible equal-cost next hops for a destination prefix when its routing and platform configuration permit ECMP. The scenario expressly states that both OSPF next hops are installed, so a single-path prohibition contradicts the evidence. A particular conversation choosing one member does not mean that the other route vanished; other flow hashes can legitimately select Gi0/1.

D:

Equal-cost next-hop selection does not require changing the packet's destination IPv4 address. CEF resolves the existing destination prefix and chooses one of the permitted adjacency paths, normally leaving the Layer 3 destination intact. Randomly rewriting destination addresses would change where the application is communicating and could break the conversation. The different observed egress interfaces arise from load sharing, not address translation.

Question 302

PC10 has address 10.20.10.44/24 in VLAN 10. The routed Vlan10 interface is 10.20.10.1/24. Which default gateway should be configured on PC10 for inter-VLAN communication?

  1. 10.20.20.1
  2. 10.20.10.1
  3. 10.20.10.255
  4. 127.0.0.1

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

PC10 belongs to the 10.20.10.0/24 network, and the routed Vlan10 interface owns 10.20.10.1/24 on that same VLAN. Setting the host's default gateway to 10.20.10.1 lets it use ARP to reach the local multilayer switch gateway for off-subnet destinations. The switch can then apply its routing table to reach VLAN 20 or another network. Confirm the SVI is operational and IPv4 routing is enabled.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The address 10.20.20.1 is in a different /24 from PC10's 10.20.10.44/24. A normal host must reach its default gateway on the local subnet through Layer 2 neighbor resolution before the gateway can route traffic elsewhere. Assigning an off-subnet VLAN 20 gateway to the VLAN 10 PC would not supply the intended directly reachable first hop. The given Vlan10 SVI is the appropriate gateway.

C:

The last address in a conventional 10.20.10.0/24 subnet, 10.20.10.255, is its directed broadcast address rather than an assignable router gateway identity. A workstation cannot ARP for that broadcast as though it were the dedicated first-hop SVI. The network already provides a valid address, 10.20.10.1, for the gateway. Confusing subnet broadcast with a default gateway is the addressing error tested.

D:

127.0.0.1 is the IPv4 loopback address on PC10 itself, used by local host software rather than as the address of its external multilayer switch. Setting the default gateway to loopback cannot send off-subnet packets toward the VLAN 10 SVI. The fact that both addresses are written in IPv4 notation does not establish physical reachability. Choose the on-link gateway supplied by the network design.

Question 303

A busy multi-tenant office sees high contention after every AP is configured for very wide 80-MHz 5-GHz channels. Which adjustment may improve channel reuse?

  1. Increase every 5-GHz channel to 160 MHz to create additional nonoverlapping choices
  2. Use narrower channels matched to density and measured capacity requirements
  3. Maximize all AP transmit powers so each signal defeats adjacent cells
  4. Force every AP onto one common channel to avoid any disagreement about channel selection

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Narrower 5-GHz channels, such as an appropriate 20- or 40-MHz plan, can increase the number of independently reusable channels across densely placed access points. This can reduce co-channel interference and airtime competition even though an individual client might have lower peak PHY bandwidth. Use site measurements, client density and throughput requirements to select widths; the best design depends on the RF environment. Blindly maximizing 80-MHz widths is not always optimal.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Increasing an already broad 80-MHz channel to 160 MHz consumes still more contiguous spectrum per cell. In a dense floor, that usually leaves fewer independent nonoverlapping channel choices and can worsen contention when adjacent access points overlap. Wider channels may improve peak throughput in a sparse clean environment, but the reported problem is frequent contention across many tenants. The team should first assess narrower channel reuse and actual traffic demand.

C:

Raising every access point to maximum transmit power can make neighboring cells audible across a wider area, increasing co-channel contention and producing asymmetric links with low-power clients. Greater received signal strength from one AP does not magically create additional independent channels. In a busy multi-tenant space, coordinated power and channel planning is preferable. A selective power increase might help a weak-coverage location but does not solve widespread spectral reuse pressure.

D:

Placing all neighboring access points on the same 5-GHz channel guarantees that their radios compete for shared airtime within hearing range. It simplifies channel numbering but does not eliminate RF interference or contention. The office already reports high contention, so consolidating every cell onto one channel moves in the wrong direction. An effective plan distributes compatible channel assignments and channel widths based on observed overlap and client demand.

Question 304

A router interface Gi0/0 faces the remote branch. Engineers want a configured IPv4 access list 110 checked as packets arrive from that branch, before routed forwarding. Which interface command is correct?

  1. ip access-group 110 out
  2. ip access-group 110 in
  3. access-class 110 in
  4. ip nat inside source list 110 interface Gi0/0 overload

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Under the routed interface Gi0/0, ip access-group 110 in attaches numbered IPv4 ACL 110 to inbound packets received from the branch. IOS then evaluates the ACL's ordered entries before normal routed forwarding along that ingress path, subject to applicable platform pipeline behavior. The ACL contents must already express the desired policy and permit legitimate traffic appropriately. Direction matters: applying it outbound would inspect packets leaving the interface instead.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The interface direction out causes a configured access group to be evaluated as packets leave Gi0/0, rather than as traffic enters from the remote branch. It could serve a different policy at the same port, but the stated requirement is to filter branch-originated packets on arrival before routing decisions. With the correct ACL already defined, change the application direction to in under the appropriate interface configuration.

C:

access-class is associated with controlling access to terminal lines, such as VTY management sessions, not the normal command for filtering routed user packets on a physical interface. Even if the ACL number exists, using the wrong command context would not apply ingress data-plane filtering to Gi0/0. The requirement concerns packets arriving from an adjacent branch, so the interface-level ip access-group directive is needed.

D:

The ip nat inside source ... overload command configures translation of inside IPv4 source addresses using PAT. It does not attach ACL 110 as an inbound packet-filtering policy at the remote-facing interface. NAT can use an ACL to classify candidates for translation, which makes the command superficially relevant, but translation classification is not the same as blocking or permitting traffic according to ingress interface security rules.

Question 305

A controller pushes device-specific forwarding instructions to managed switches. Which direction is normally described by the interface carrying those instructions?

  1. Northbound from controller to an external analytics application
  2. Southbound from the controller toward network infrastructure
  3. A DNS recursive query from a client to a resolver
  4. An SMTP delivery event from a switch to a mail server

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A southbound interface connects the controller's management or control logic to the network devices whose forwarding state or configuration it orchestrates. In the scenario, the controller translates a central decision into device-specific instructions sent toward managed switches; this is the southbound direction. The exact protocol varies by architecture and product and does not have to be OpenFlow. Northbound interfaces instead ordinarily serve applications and higher-level policy consumers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A controller's northbound interface usually exposes intent, data or services upward to applications, automation platforms or business-level consumers. The stem instead describes instructions flowing from the controller down to devices that execute forwarding behavior. Northbound APIs might supply a policy to the controller first, but they are not the controller-to-infrastructure channel specifically asked about. Distinguish application integration from infrastructure control direction.

C:

A recursive DNS query resolves names using the domain-name system and can travel between a host, resolver and authoritative servers. It does not describe the directional controller API used to program forwarding behavior on managed switches. The switch could use DNS for management endpoints, but that would be supporting connectivity, not the definition of a southbound interface. The relevant distinction is a controller sending control instructions to infrastructure.

D:

SMTP handles electronic mail delivery between clients and mail systems; an emailed alert could report a network event but would not normally program a switch's forwarding entries. The stem specifically describes the controller issuing instructions to managed infrastructure, which is a control-plane integration. A southbound network interface may use authenticated APIs or device protocols, unlike a mail message sent to a notification service.

Question 306

An SNMP manager needs to read a specific interface counter represented in the device MIB. Which terminology correctly identifies the addressable managed value?

  1. An SSID
  2. An OSPF area ID
  3. A VLAN native ID
  4. An object identifier (OID)

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An SNMP object identifier, or OID, is a hierarchical numeric name for a managed object defined in the MIB structure. To read a particular interface counter, the manager queries the counter's OID and applicable instance or index, and the device agent returns the supported value. Human-readable MIB symbols can map to the same identifiers. An OID identifies the management variable rather than merely the device's SSID, VLAN or routing area.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An SSID identifies a wireless network name advertised or used by an 802.11 WLAN and is configured through wireless management tools. It is not the standardized identifier used to address a particular SNMP management information value, such as an interface counter. The manager already has a MIB describing managed objects. To retrieve a specific counter, it references that object's identifier rather than an access-point network name.

B:

An OSPF area ID organizes routers and link-state information into an interior routing-protocol topology. It can be a field in a management record, but it is not the general addressing system for an SNMP interface counter. The stem is about locating one variable described in a MIB. SNMP uses hierarchical object identifiers for that purpose; OSPF areas solve a separate control-plane scope problem.

C:

The native VLAN identifies where untagged Ethernet frames are classified on an 802.1Q trunk. It is a Layer 2 configuration property and might be exposed through some management MIB, but the VLAN number is not itself the universal address of an SNMP counter. The manager must refer to the particular managed object using the appropriate OID, often including an instance index for an interface.

Question 307

An IPv6 host route is configured as ipv6 route 2001:db8:aa::7/128 2001:db8:ff::2. Which TWO interpretations are correct? Choose TWO.

  1. The route singles out 2001:db8:aa::7
  2. The route forwards the entire 2001:db8:aa::/64 over that next hop
  3. The route is IPv4 because it uses the word route
  4. 2001:db8:ff::2 is the configured next-hop address
  5. The /128 suffix requests 128 possible ECMP next hops

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

An IPv6 prefix length of /128 identifies all 128 bits of one destination address, so the configured route singles out the host 2001:db8:aa::7. It does not announce an entire /64 LAN. This host-specific static route can override a broader matching IPv6 route when installed and usable. The scenario uses documentation addresses but the prefix-length semantics are the same for appropriately deployed routable IPv6 addresses.

D:

In the command ipv6 route 2001:db8:aa::7/128 2001:db8:ff::2, the second IPv6 address is the specified next hop for reaching the /128 host destination. The router must be able to resolve that next hop according to its IPv6 routing and neighbor state for the static path to become useful. The first address identifies the route's destination; the second is not another host route to be advertised.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Routing the entire 2001:db8:aa::/64 would require a 64-bit destination prefix and a matching configured route. Here the full 128-bit destination 2001:db8:aa::7 is specified, so other hosts in the same apparent subnet do not automatically match this route. An administrator might add a separate /64 route for a whole network, but the current command represents a single-host destination.

C:

Cisco IOS chooses the address family from the command and its address syntax: ipv6 route is an IPv6 static-routing directive, not IPv4 routing. The trailing word route appears in both IPv4 and IPv6 commands and cannot identify the protocol by itself. The two colon-delimited 2001:db8 addresses make the IPv6 context explicit. Interpreting this as an ip route command would miss that difference.

E:

The /128 notation defines the number of destination address bits that must match, not the number of equal-cost next hops or possible paths. A single next-hop IPv6 address follows the destination in the example. ECMP, if configured and supported, would require multiple eligible forwarding alternatives defined through routing state. Counting mask bits as paths confuses destination specificity with next-hop selection.

Question 308

Both ends report an operational 802.1Q trunk, but VLAN 70 hosts cannot communicate between the switches. show interfaces trunk shows VLAN 70 missing from the allowed list on SW2. What is the most direct correction?

  1. Change both sides to an access VLAN 70
  2. Add VLAN 70 to SW2’s trunk allowed list
  3. Enable OSPF adjacency between the switches
  4. Change the subnet mask on VLAN 70 workstations

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The operational trunk can carry only VLAN IDs admitted by its effective allowed list. SW2 explicitly excludes VLAN 70, so frames classified into that VLAN cannot traverse the trunk as intended even though the physical link and trunk mode are up. Add VLAN 70 to SW2's allowed set, preserve other required VLANs, and verify compatibility on both switches. The VLAN also needs to exist and be active where applicable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Changing the two interswitch links to static access ports in VLAN 70 would remove their ordinary multi-VLAN trunk function and might disrupt other VLAN traffic. The problem is narrower: both endpoints already report a working trunk, but SW2's allowed VLAN list omits one required VLAN. A trunk should remain a trunk while the permitted VLAN set is corrected. An access-port conversion is unnecessary and may create a new outage.

C:

OSPF is a Layer 3 routing protocol that exchanges IP reachability among routers; it does not automatically authorize an 802.1Q VLAN on a switch trunk. The scenario is a same-VLAN connectivity failure across two switches with a directly observed missing trunk-allowed entry. Adding OSPF neighbors would address a different routing design and leave the Layer 2 forwarding restriction unchanged. Correct VLAN admission first.

D:

An IPv4 subnet mask defines on-link versus off-link IP addressing behavior, but the provided evidence isolates the fault to a Layer 2 trunk VLAN filter. Hosts with correct addresses still cannot exchange frames across a trunk that drops their VLAN's tagged traffic. Changing client masks could create inconsistent subnet boundaries while the VLAN remains blocked. Verify SW2's trunk allowed list instead of altering endpoint addressing.

Question 309

A switch receives a known-unicast frame on Gi1/0/5 in VLAN 10. The destination MAC address is already learned on that SAME Gi1/0/5 port because two devices share a downstream segment. Which THREE statements describe normal bridge behavior? Choose THREE.

  1. The switch filters this frame instead of transmitting a copy back out Gi1/0/5 just to reach the known destination
  2. One switchport may learn multiple source MAC addresses when a downstream bridge or hub connects several endpoints
  3. The destination MAC entry remains scoped to VLAN 10; knowing it does not itself create inter-VLAN routing
  4. The switch must flood the frame on every VLAN 10 port even though the known destination resides on the ingress port
  5. Learning the destination on the incoming interface automatically configures an IPv4 SVI gateway
  6. The switch rewrites the frame destination into a broadcast MAC address before forwarding

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

A known unicast whose destination MAC maps to the same physical port on which the frame arrived is normally filtered by a learning bridge rather than sent back out that same port. This prevents pointless reflection toward the downstream segment that already contains the destination. In the scenario, the VLAN 10 forwarding table identifies Gi1/0/5 for the destination, so flooding to other ports would not be required by an ordinary learned-MAC lookup.

B:

An Ethernet switch may learn many distinct source MAC addresses behind one port when a downstream bridge, hub or other permitted multi-host device is connected. The forwarding table can therefore contain several VLAN 10 addresses mapped to Gi1/0/5 without implying an error. This explains how two downstream endpoints might appear at the same switchport. Learning multiple MACs does not by itself permit inter-VLAN routing or require sending frames back out their ingress port.

C:

A learned Ethernet destination MAC entry is evaluated in its Layer 2 VLAN context, so knowing an address behind Gi1/0/5 in VLAN 10 does not create an IP route or gateway to another VLAN. Routing requires a Layer 3-capable interface and an installed forwarding path. The scenario concerns bridge filtering on a shared downstream segment. The VLAN-scoped MAC entry helps explain the local forwarding decision, not a global inter-VLAN reachability change.

Incorrect Answers

D:

Unknown unicast flooding is a normal fallback when a destination MAC has no learned egress entry for its VLAN. Here the destination is explicitly already known on the same ingress interface, so the normal switch avoids reflecting the frame and does not flood every VLAN 10 port. Applying the unknown-destination rule despite a known same-port entry would disregard the evidence in the stem and add needless traffic.

E:

A switched virtual interface, or SVI, must be separately configured on a capable switch to provide a Layer 3 gateway address for a VLAN. Observing a destination MAC on a physical access port changes only the Layer 2 forwarding database. It does not automatically assign an SVI IP address, activate routing, or create a new subnet gateway. The current question tests ordinary MAC learning and filtering, not SVI provisioning.

F:

Ethernet switches normally preserve the unicast destination MAC when bridging a frame within a VLAN; they use it for a table lookup. A router or other Layer 3 forwarding function can rewrite link-layer headers on a different segment, but a learning switch does not convert this known-unicast destination into broadcast merely because it was seen on the ingress port. In this case, local filtering is the appropriate result.

Question 310

An access interface is configured for port security with a maximum of two secure MAC addresses. A third unknown source MAC starts transmitting. Which violation mode drops that traffic, increments violation counters and may log, without error-disabling the interface?

  1. shutdown
  2. restrict
  3. protect
  4. dynamic desirable

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

In Cisco switchport port security, restrict drops frames that violate the secure MAC limit while allowing the interface to remain operational for authorized traffic. It also increments violation statistics and can generate logging or SNMP notifications, depending on configuration and platform. With two addresses already permitted and a third unknown sender arriving, this meets all described effects without moving the port to an error-disabled state. Confirm applicable switch model support.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The port-security shutdown violation mode commonly puts an offending switchport into an error-disabled condition when an unauthorized source MAC exceeds the configured secure-MAC limit. That can halt legitimate traffic until recovery or administrative action. The scenario explicitly requires the interface to remain enabled while offending frames are dropped and counted. Shutdown therefore applies too severe a response, even though it can record or signal the violation.

C:

The protect port-security violation mode typically drops frames from unauthorized source MAC addresses without the additional violation counter increments and notifications expected from restrict. It can keep the switchport active, but the question expressly requests counting and possible logging. That additional observability is the distinguishing requirement. Protect may be chosen where silent discard is acceptable, while restrict is appropriate when administrators need visible violation events.

D:

dynamic desirable refers to a Dynamic Trunking Protocol mode on supported Cisco switches, where a port actively negotiates a trunk with a compatible peer. It is unrelated to controlling the number of secure source MAC addresses on an access port. Enabling trunk negotiation could alter VLAN behavior without enforcing the intended port-security violation response. Select an appropriate switchport port-security violation mode instead.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests