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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 33

Question 320

The routing table contains S 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.0.2.1 and S 203.0.113.32/28 via 198.51.100.2. Which TWO destinations will match the /28 route instead of the default? Choose TWO.

  1. 203.0.113.31
  2. 203.0.113.33
  3. 203.0.113.48
  4. 192.0.2.1
  5. 203.0.113.46

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

The destination 203.0.113.33 is inside the /28 interval 203.0.113.32 through.47. The /28 static route is therefore a longer matching prefix than 0.0.0.0/0, so it takes precedence under ordinary destination-based forwarding. Provided the specific route is installed with a usable next hop, traffic for.33 uses 198.51.100.2 rather than the default next hop 192.0.2.1.

E:

The destination 203.0.113.46 lies in the 203.0.113.32/28 prefix because a /28 covers sixteen values, from.32 through.47. That makes the configured specific static route the preferred match over the /0 default when both are installed. The next hop for the /28 is 198.51.100.2. The selected answer tests membership near the upper boundary rather than just recognizing the first host in the block.

Incorrect Answers

A:

203.0.113.31 is just below the configured 203.0.113.32/28 block, whose addresses begin at.32 and end at.47. It cannot match that more-specific static route, so the router uses another installed matching route, here the 0/0 default. This illustrates that matching depends on the prefix boundaries, not whether an address looks numerically close to the destination subnet.

C:

203.0.113.48 starts the next /28 block after the configured 203.0.113.32/28 destination. It does not match the specific route, even though it is adjacent to the.32–.47 range. With no other longer matching route stated, the default via 192.0.2.1 handles it. Conflating sequential host numbers with prefix membership would produce the wrong forwarding decision.

D:

192.0.2.1 is displayed as the default route's next-hop address, not as a member of the separate 203.0.113.32/28 destination prefix. A packet addressed to 192.0.2.1 may use connected or other routes according to the actual table, but it is not within the /28 under evaluation. The question asks which destinations match that specific prefix, not which address functions as the default gateway.

Question 321

A Cisco IP phone is set to learn its voice VLAN from CDP. The switchport already has switchport voice vlan 110 and switchport access vlan 10, but the phone does not receive a voice VLAN advertisement after CDP is disabled on the port. Which change directly restores the intended automatic voice VLAN discovery?

  1. Configure the IP phone traffic as untagged VLAN 10 without using a voice VLAN
  2. Set switchport trunk native vlan 110 on the access port
  3. Enable OSPF between the phone and the switch
  4. Reenable CDP advertisements on the phone-facing switch interface

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

With Cisco phone voice VLAN discovery based on CDP, the switch sends neighbor advertisements containing the configured voice VLAN information. CDP being disabled on the phone-facing port removes exactly the information source the phone expects. Reenable CDP on that supported interface and confirm the phone receives advertisements identifying VLAN 110 while normal workstation data remains in access VLAN 10. This does not require turning the interface into a conventional trunk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sending the phone's voice frames untagged in VLAN 10 would abandon the configured separation between user data and voice VLAN 110. It might allow traffic on the data network, but it does not repair the failed automatic discovery of the phone's voice assignment. The problem began specifically when CDP advertisements stopped, so changing the forwarding design conceals rather than resolves the control-information failure.

B:

The native VLAN is a property of an 802.1Q trunk and determines how its untagged frames are classified. The phone-facing port is configured with an access data VLAN and a separate voice VLAN, not a conventional switch-to-switch trunk. Changing trunk native VLAN settings does not restore the missing CDP advertisement carrying the voice policy and could introduce a mismatched configuration.

C:

OSPF exchanges Layer 3 routing information between router-capable neighbors; a desk telephone is not an OSPF routing peer in this arrangement. The device needs a Layer 2 discovery message telling it which VLAN to tag for voice traffic. Initiating a routing adjacency would neither enable switch CDP advertisements nor provide that client-facing voice VLAN instruction.

Question 322

An administrator wants to verify which IPv4 static routes are currently installed rather than merely present in running configuration. Which CLI command provides that focused table view?

  1. show running-config | include ip route
  2. show ip ospf neighbor
  3. show ip route static
  4. show interfaces status

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The command show ip route static filters the active IPv4 routing table to routes classified as static. It therefore answers whether the specific static destination has been installed, instead of merely showing a configuration line. The route must satisfy reachability and selection conditions before becoming an installed candidate; a more preferred source or unresolved next hop can change what appears. Compare the output to the configured route only if an expected entry is missing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Running configuration displays static route statements that an administrator entered, including routes whose recursive next hop is currently unresolved. That is useful for configuration audit, but the question asks which routes the device has actually installed in the IPv4 routing table. A configured statement can exist without an active RIB entry when reachability or administrative-distance selection prevents installation.

B:

The OSPF neighbor command lists OSPF peers and their adjacency states; it does not report the installed static IPv4 prefixes. Even a healthy OSPF adjacency says nothing about whether a particular static route won selection or resolved its next hop. Use this command when diagnosing a missing OSPF neighbor, not for checking the current static-route portion of the route table.

D:

show interfaces status summarizes switch interface operational status, speed, duplex, and related details on supported platforms. It neither filters IPv4 routing entries nor identifies installed static destinations and their next hops. A link can be operational while a static route remains absent for other reasons, so this interface inventory is not the focused validation requested.

Question 323

A program binds to IPv6 address :: before choosing a specific local interface address. What address meaning is being used?

  1. :: is the loopback destination for traffic generated by a local application
  2. :: is the all-nodes multicast address for every interface on the local link
  3. :: automatically resolves to the first configured global unicast address as a fixed host ID
  4. ::/128 is the IPv6 unspecified address

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The all-zero IPv6 address ::/128 is reserved as the unspecified address. In network programming, binding a listening socket to :: commonly expresses a wildcard local endpoint rather than a specific interface address; its precise dual-stack behavior depends on stack settings. It is not a routable remote destination and should not be confused with the local IPv6 loopback ::1. The question is about address meaning, not assigning a permanent interface identifier.

Incorrect Answers

A:

IPv6 loopback is ::1/128, an address identifying the local host itself, not the all-zero unspecified address. Binding a service to :: is commonly used to accept connections on applicable local interfaces, whereas sending a packet to loopback remains local. Confusing the two would make a network listener behave differently from a self-test client.

B:

The all-nodes multicast destination on an IPv6 link is ff02::1, which begins with the multicast ff prefix. The address :: has all bits zero and does not describe a group of receivers. A program binding to an unspecified local address is selecting a local endpoint behavior, not transmitting to every neighbor on the link.

C:

A wildcard bind to :: does not permanently select the first configured global-unicast address as its IPv6 host identity. The operating system may allow a socket to accept traffic addressed to several of its local interfaces, subject to socket options and network stack behavior. An unspecified address is not a dynamically resolved stable global IP assignment.

Question 324

Which THREE actions make a network-device vulnerability assessment actionable before a maintenance window? Choose THREE.

  1. Identify devices and software versions affected by the disclosed issue
  2. Assume every device is patched because its interfaces are up
  3. Record reachable management surfaces and plausible attack paths
  4. Disable all centralized logging until software is upgraded
  5. Rely entirely on an unverified forum comment for severity
  6. Plan the relevant patch or compensating restriction and verify it after change

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

A vulnerability identifier alone is insufficient to determine exposure: the team must match affected software releases and hardware or product families against its actual network inventory. A vulnerable component absent from the estate does not require the same remediation as a remotely reachable affected router. Recording versions establishes which devices must be patched or protected and allows post-change verification of the software state.

C:

Reachability determines whether an attacker can access the vulnerable entry point, so management VLANs, permitted source addresses, exposed APIs, and authentication boundaries all matter. Combining this attack-path context with the actual affected inventory helps rank the work before the maintenance window. An affected service isolated from untrusted networks may warrant a different interim restriction than an Internet-exposed management service. This improves change prioritization.

F:

An actionable assessment connects observed exposure to a specific mitigation, such as a tested software update or temporary management-plane access control, and documents how success will be verified. The change plan should include device backups, an outage strategy, and post-upgrade checks of version and service behavior. Simply identifying risk without an executable correction and verification would leave the maintenance team unable to demonstrate closure.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An interface being up verifies a link-level operational condition, not the patch state of the operating system or network service. A device can forward traffic normally while exposing a known exploitable software flaw. The assessment must inspect installed images and affected features rather than inferring security from interface counters or uptime.

D:

Disabling centralized logs would make the risk harder to observe and remove evidence of attempted exploitation during the vulnerable period. A maintenance plan normally preserves monitoring and audit trails while access restrictions or patches are prepared. Reducing evidence collection does not remove the underlying flaw and can make the post-change verification less trustworthy.

E:

An anonymous forum assessment can be a clue for investigation, but it is not authoritative evidence of the flaw, affected versions, or exploit prerequisites. Use vendor advisories, reliable vulnerability records, and device inventory to confirm risk before making disruptive changes. An unverified comment alone cannot support severity ranking or a defensible operational patch decision.

Question 325

A configuration automation process wants to delete obsolete resource /policies/old-guest through the controller API. Which HTTP method ordinarily expresses that intent?

  1. GET
  2. DELETE
  3. POST to /health
  4. OPTIONS

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

HTTP DELETE is the conventional REST method for requesting removal of the resource named by the target URI. For /policies/old-guest, an authenticated DELETE call expresses the intent to remove that obsolete policy, subject to the controller's authorization and dependency rules. Verify the vendor API's documented semantics, expected response status, and subsequent absence of the resource; DELETE is not a universal promise that every dependency is removed automatically.

Incorrect Answers

A:

GET retrieves a representation of a resource and is intended as a safe read operation, not a request to remove controller policy state. Calling GET on /policies/old-guest might display the obsolete rule, but it would not express the required deletion. Management automation should use the method documented for the intended state change to avoid silent failures or unexpected side effects.

C:

POST to a health-check path typically invokes or submits an operation associated with that endpoint; the /health resource is not the policy URI in the scenario. POST may be used by APIs for custom actions, but this example does not name the policy to delete. A successful health response would not establish that /policies/old-guest had been removed.

D:

OPTIONS tells a client which request methods or communication capabilities a resource might support; it does not itself delete configuration. It can help discover that DELETE is allowed but cannot replace the state-changing call. The automation needs an authorized operation against the actual policy resource, not merely a description of available operations.

Question 326

A router relays DHCP from VLAN 10 to a server in another subnet. Why does the DHCP relay agent populate its gateway-address (giaddr) field in the forwarded request?

  1. It encrypts the client identity for the DHCP server
  2. It helps the server identify the client subnet for scope selection and reply routing
  3. It instructs DNS to create an MX record for the client
  4. It changes the client hardware MAC address to the router MAC

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

When a client broadcasts DHCP on VLAN 10 but the server is off-subnet, the relay forwards the request with a gateway address representing the client-side subnet. The server can select a suitable scope or pool and send its reply along the relay path rather than treating the client as located on the server's local network. This field carries routing and subnet context; it does not assign the client's final address by itself. Relay configuration must also identify the reachable server destination.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The DHCP relay gateway-address field is not an encryption mechanism and does not conceal the client's identity from a DHCP server. DHCPv4 relays forward and annotate client requests so a server can decide which address pool should serve that link. Confidentiality, when required, needs appropriate separate protections; using giaddr alone provides no cryptographic property.

C:

An MX record names mail exchangers for a DNS domain; it is unrelated to allocating DHCPv4 leases. The DHCP server examines relay information for subnet selection, not for publishing email delivery records. DHCP and DNS can integrate in some deployments, but such integration does not make giaddr an instruction to create a mail-routing record.

D:

The relay does not normally rewrite the client's own Ethernet hardware address into the router's MAC address inside the DHCP client hardware-address field. Its gateway address provides the server with a logical return and scope-selection reference. The router will use its own Layer 2 addressing on the forwarded link, but that is separate from falsifying the client's DHCP identity.

Question 327

A high-priority router joins an already stable OSPF broadcast segment that has an existing DR and BDR. The new router has priority 250 but no election reset occurs. What happens by default?

  1. It instantly becomes DR and forces all neighbors to restart OSPF
  2. It normally joins without replacing the current healthy DR or BDR
  3. It cannot establish any OSPF neighbor until its priority is reduced to 1
  4. The entire broadcast segment automatically changes into a point-to-point network

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A nonpreemptive OSPF DR/BDR election ordinarily preserves the current healthy DR and BDR even when a higher-priority neighbor subsequently appears. The new router participates and can form the appropriate neighbor relationships but does not force an immediate replacement election. Its priority of 250 could matter if the role election is later repeated due to failure or a deliberate reset. Avoid confusing DR election behavior with a first-hop redundancy preemption setting.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF's designated-router election on a broadcast network is not ordinarily preemptive. A later joining router with a numerically larger priority does not automatically displace a stable healthy DR, so there is no mandated adjacency reset solely because the newcomer is more preferred in a future election. The timing and existing role state matter as much as priority values.

C:

Priority 250 is a valid nonzero OSPF router priority and does not prevent adjacency formation with existing neighbors. On a broadcast segment, priority zero prevents a router from becoming DR or BDR, but a positive high value still permits participation. The election's lack of preemption does not require changing the newcomer to priority one.

D:

OSPF network type is determined by interface configuration and link media behavior, not automatically changed when a router with higher priority joins. A broadcast Ethernet segment still uses its broadcast adjacency and DR model unless the operator changes the network type. The arrival of the new router cannot silently transform the segment into point-to-point merely by advertising a preference value.

Question 328

A team wants to verify the native VLAN and the switchport’s administrative versus operational mode for interface Gi1/0/24, including whether DTP negotiation is enabled. Which detailed command is the best fit?

  1. show version
  2. show ip route
  3. show vlan brief
  4. show interfaces gi1/0/24 switchport

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The per-interface show interfaces gi1/0/24 switchport view displays administrative and operational switching modes, access and trunk-related VLAN properties, and negotiation state on supported Catalyst platforms. These fields distinguish what the administrator requested from the port's current status, including the native VLAN and relevant DTP behavior. It is therefore a direct diagnostic for the stated Gi1/0/24 issue. Confirm the exact output fields on the deployed software family because CLI detail can vary by platform.

Incorrect Answers

A:

show version reports software, platform, uptime and image-related details rather than detailed switchport trunk negotiation and native-VLAN settings for one interface. It is useful when comparing supported IOS versions or hardware capabilities, but it cannot directly answer whether Gi1/0/24 is administratively or operationally trunking. Use an interface switchport inspection command for that configuration-versus-state distinction.

B:

show ip route displays Layer 3 destination routes and next hops; it does not enumerate DTP negotiation or switchport administrative trunk mode. A switch may have no routed SVI active while Gi1/0/24 is an operational Ethernet trunk. IP routing information is not a substitute for verifying Layer 2 encapsulation and native-VLAN classification.

C:

show vlan brief lists VLAN definitions and ordinary port membership, which can help confirm the existence of access VLANs. It is not the detailed per-interface view showing administrative mode, operational mode, DTP negotiation status, and native-VLAN handling. In particular, a trunk may not appear in a normal access-port membership list despite carrying several VLANs.

Question 329

An administrator hides a WLAN's SSID advertisement and claims that the network is now encrypted. What is the accurate correction?

  1. Hidden SSID advertisement automatically enables WPA3 encryption on an otherwise open WLAN
  2. SSID hiding is not encryption and does not replace an appropriate WLAN security mode
  3. Capturing 802.11 frames becomes impossible after the AP suppresses the network name
  4. Clients cannot connect to any WLAN until its SSID is publicly broadcast

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An SSID is the identifier for a wireless network, and choosing not to include it in normal broadcast discovery does not cryptographically protect 802.11 data frames. Clients can still reveal or learn the network name through other management exchanges, so obscurity should not be treated as confidentiality. Configure suitable WPA2/WPA3 security and authentication according to client support; SSID visibility is an independent operational setting. The stem confuses discovering a network with protecting its traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hiding or suppressing periodic SSID broadcast advertisements does not automatically enable WPA3 authentication or encryption. A WLAN left in open mode remains open even when the name is not shown in a casual client scan. Protection requires configuring an appropriate security policy, supported key-management method, and encryption options on the wireless infrastructure and clients.

C:

Wireless frames remain observable over radio even when an AP does not advertise a normal SSID name in its beacons. Passive monitoring can still detect timing, addresses, and management exchanges, and the name may appear in other exchanges. Hiding a label cannot prevent traffic capture; link-layer cryptography is needed to protect the content of supported transmissions.

D:

Clients that know the SSID can often connect to a WLAN that does not advertise its name in normal scans, subject to their configuration and the network's behavior. Such connections may require directed probes or explicit profiles, which carry their own privacy tradeoffs. Public SSID broadcast is not an absolute prerequisite for association and does not establish the strength of security.

Question 330

A router configuration contains both an enable password and an enable secret. Under normal Cisco IOS behavior, which one is used when entering privileged EXEC mode?

  1. The console line password always wins
  2. The configured enable secret takes precedence
  3. Both strings must be entered in alphabetical order
  4. Neither is checked if SSH was used to log in

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cisco IOS normally prefers enable secret over the legacy enable password when both are configured for entry into privileged EXEC mode. The secret uses a more secure stored representation than the older enable password, depending on the configured algorithm and platform. A login over console or SSH does not by itself remove the privileged-mode check. Strong unique secrets and appropriate AAA privilege controls are still needed in a production configuration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A console line password controls entry through that management line under its configured login method and is distinct from the privileged EXEC credential. Once authenticated on the console, a user entering enable is governed by the device's enable secret when it exists. Having a line password does not make that credential outrank the separately configured privileged-mode secret.

C:

Cisco IOS does not require entering both configured strings in alphabetical order. The effective privileged EXEC credential is selected by the IOS precedence rules, with enable secret normally taking priority. Treating the two configurations as a two-step ordered password sequence misinterprets their relationship and may lead to unnecessary password exposure during troubleshooting.

D:

SSH encrypts the remote-management transport and authenticates a login according to VTY/AAA settings. It does not automatically bypass the later authorization or secret required for privileged EXEC mode. Operators may arrive with an already privileged account under some AAA models, but that is a separate authorization decision, not a general exemption created by choosing SSH.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests