Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 32
Question 310
An access interface is configured for port security with a maximum of two secure MAC addresses. A third unknown source MAC starts transmitting. Which violation mode drops that traffic, increments violation counters and may log, without error-disabling the interface?
shutdownrestrictprotectdynamic desirable
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:In Cisco switchport port security, restrict drops frames that violate the secure MAC limit while allowing the interface to remain operational for authorized traffic. It also increments violation statistics and can generate logging or SNMP notifications, depending on configuration and platform. With two addresses already permitted and a third unknown sender arriving, this meets all described effects without moving the port to an error-disabled state. Confirm applicable switch model support.
Incorrect Answers
A:The port-security shutdown violation mode commonly puts an offending switchport into an error-disabled condition when an unauthorized source MAC exceeds the configured secure-MAC limit. That can halt legitimate traffic until recovery or administrative action. The scenario explicitly requires the interface to remain enabled while offending frames are dropped and counted. Shutdown therefore applies too severe a response, even though it can record or signal the violation.
C:The protect port-security violation mode typically drops frames from unauthorized source MAC addresses without the additional violation counter increments and notifications expected from restrict. It can keep the switchport active, but the question expressly requests counting and possible logging. That additional observability is the distinguishing requirement. Protect may be chosen where silent discard is acceptable, while restrict is appropriate when administrators need visible violation events.
D:dynamic desirable refers to a Dynamic Trunking Protocol mode on supported Cisco switches, where a port actively negotiates a trunk with a compatible peer. It is unrelated to controlling the number of secure source MAC addresses on an access port. Enabling trunk negotiation could alter VLAN behavior without enforcing the intended port-security violation response. Select an appropriate switchport port-security violation mode instead.
Question 311
An OSPF broadcast segment has an active DR and BDR. The DR fails while the BDR remains healthy. What is the expected role transition?
- All OSPF neighbors immediately switch to point-to-point network type
- Every router drops its area number and restarts as area 0
- The healthy BDR can take over the DR role
- The router with the lowest Ethernet port number always becomes DR
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:On an OSPF broadcast multiaccess network, a healthy Backup Designated Router is poised to become the Designated Router if the current DR fails. This lets the segment preserve an organized adjacency structure without restarting every router's configuration. Other eligible routers can participate in choosing a new BDR as needed. The specific role transition comes from the existing BDR status; interface priority and router ID govern other election outcomes.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF network type governs adjacency and designated-router behavior on an interface, but a DR failure does not force the whole broadcast segment to reconfigure as point-to-point. Remaining routers can preserve their interface settings while the healthy BDR assumes the DR role. A network-type change would be a separate administrator decision and might be inappropriate for shared Ethernet. The scenario only describes failure and election-role continuity.
B:OSPF area assignments are configured independently of whether a particular device is DR, BDR or DROTHER on one broadcast segment. A DR outage does not reset area numbers or require all routers to join backbone area 0. The healthy neighbors maintain their area relationship and elect or promote roles according to OSPF behavior. Changing areas would risk breaking adjacencies instead of restoring the segment's designated-router function.
D:The Ethernet port number is not the OSPF designated-router election criterion. OSPF uses configured interface priority for eligible candidates and router ID as a tie-break, with non-preemptive election behavior. After the current DR fails, the established healthy BDR can assume the role rather than the router attached to a numerically smallest port. This distinction matters because device cabling labels do not determine routing-protocol leadership.
Question 312
A Layer 2 LACP Port-channel with member links Gi1/0/1 and Gi1/0/2 must allow VLANs 100 and 200 as one logical trunk. Where should the consistent trunk VLAN policy be administered?
- The logical interface Port-channel1
- Only Gi1/0/1, leaving Gi1/0/2 configured differently
- Only the management interface VLAN 1 SVI
- A connected host’s Ethernet driver
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:An EtherChannel appears to Layer 2 switching as a logical Port-channel interface that aggregates the member physical links. Configure consistent trunk mode and allowed VLAN policy on Port-channel1 so VLANs 100 and 200 are administered for the logical bundle. Member interfaces must be compatible with that policy, and platforms may propagate or require consistent settings. A mismatched configuration on one member can prevent proper bundling or cause operational inconsistencies.
Incorrect Answers
B:Applying VLAN trunk policy only to Gi1/0/1 while leaving Gi1/0/2 different creates inconsistent member settings for one EtherChannel. The two physical links need compatible speed, duplex, VLAN and switchport conditions to join a common logical bundle. In a stable configuration, administrators generally apply the shared trunk policy to Port-channel1 and verify both members. A per-member discrepancy is not a method for carrying the intended VLANs on the aggregate.
C:The management VLAN 1 SVI can provide a switch management IP address or participate in routing on a multilayer switch, but it is not the logical Layer 2 EtherChannel interface. Setting VLANs 100 and 200 on an SVI would not define which 802.1Q tags traverse Port-channel1. The requested trunk policy belongs on the switched port-channel carrying the aggregated Ethernet links. IP management and VLAN transport solve different requirements.
D:A connected host's Ethernet driver controls host-side link settings and possibly VLAN tagging on a supported NIC, not the switch's EtherChannel trunk allowed list. The host cannot centrally define the logical trunk membership between the two Catalyst switches. Port-channel1 is the administrative place for the combined link's consistent policy, and the physical members must also support that policy. Changing a host driver would not fix this switch-to-switch configuration.
Question 313
Ceiling-mounted IP phones and access points lack local power adapters. The access switch must energize them through the same cable carrying Ethernet data. What feature is required?
- Use 802.1Q tags on the access port to deliver electrical current independently of power-sourcing hardware
- Disable Ethernet auto-negotiation to turn ordinary copper data signals into a DC power supply
- Enable a CAPWAP control tunnel so the controller provides power through wireless management packets
- A PoE-capable switch port supplies negotiated electrical power over Ethernet cabling
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A Power over Ethernet-capable switchport acts as power sourcing equipment, delivering suitable DC power over the Ethernet cable to an attached compliant powered device. This lets ceiling access points and IP phones operate without local adapters while data travels on the same cable. The port and switch need sufficient PoE standards support and total power budget for the device. VLAN tags and control tunnels are separate features that do not supply electrical power.
Incorrect Answers
A:IEEE 802.1Q inserts VLAN identification into Ethernet frames on tagged trunks, allowing a switch to distinguish different Layer 2 broadcast domains. It does not deliver DC power to attached telephones or access points. Those devices need a power source in addition to data classification. Even with the correct VLAN, a non-PoE port cannot energize equipment lacking local adapters; use a power-sourcing switchport or an appropriate external injector.
B:Ethernet auto-negotiation exchanges capabilities such as supported speeds and duplex behavior on compatible links; disabling it does not create an electrical power supply. A PoE endpoint requires power sourcing and negotiation or detection under the relevant standard and hardware. Forcing link parameters could also cause mismatches and make troubleshooting harder. The stem explicitly requires power over the same Ethernet cable, which is handled by PoE circuitry.
C:CAPWAP transports management/control communication and, in centrally switched modes, wireless client data between an access point and a wireless LAN controller over IP. It does not supply the electrical watts required to run the access-point radio. A controller can configure or monitor AP behavior once the unit is powered, but it cannot replace the switch's PoE source through management packets. Verify power budget at the access switch.
Question 314
A router’s show ip route output lists routes but an operator needs to verify whether a specific IPv4 prefix is present and see its displayed next-hop information. Which command is the most direct starting point?
- show ip arp
- show ip route
- show mac address-table
- show version
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:show ip route displays the router's installed IPv4 destinations, their route-source codes, prefix lengths and applicable next-hop or interface information. It is the direct starting point for checking whether a target prefix is in the routing table and how IOS intends to forward matching packets. Depending on platform, more targeted forms can narrow output to one destination. If a configured static route is absent, next-hop resolution or protocol state may require further checks.
Incorrect Answers
A:show ip arp displays IPv4-to-MAC neighbor resolution information for local Ethernet adjacency and does not list installed routes for an arbitrary destination prefix. An ARP cache might help after the routing process selects a connected or next-hop adjacency, but it is not the primary view of prefix reachability. The operator wants the actual installed route and next-hop field. Start with the IPv4 route table instead.
C:show mac address-table is a Layer 2 switching command that lists learned Ethernet MAC-to-port associations within VLAN contexts. It does not expose the IPv4 destination-prefix entries or administrative distances the router uses for Layer 3 path selection. MAC learning can help locate a neighbor after a route is known, but it cannot answer whether the specified IP prefix is installed. The relevant command is the routing-table display.
D:show version reports software, hardware and operating system details such as the IOS release and platform uptime. It can help identify supported command behavior, but it does not directly list installed destination-prefix routes or their next-hop addresses. The question calls for an operational route lookup, not device inventory. Use show ip route first, then inspect software details only if troubleshooting needs platform-specific context.
Question 315
Which TWO measures help a network operations team evaluate whether AI-assisted fault prioritization is improving incidents rather than merely sounding convincing? Choose TWO.
- Count how many words the assistant generates, regardless of accuracy
- Test recommendations against labeled historical cases and review false positives
- Choose the system that uses the most model parameters automatically
- Assume every suggested change is correct if it uses valid JSON syntax
- Track measurable incident outcomes, such as verified time to diagnosis or resolution
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Testing AI-assisted fault recommendations on labeled historical incidents provides a defensible baseline for measuring accuracy, precision and false-positive behavior. Engineers can verify whether the system ranked genuinely important link, routing or wireless faults ahead of routine noise and study failure patterns before live rollout. Use representative data and guard against leakage from training examples. A low false-positive rate alone is insufficient, but historical validation supplies concrete evidence beyond persuasive prose.
E:Measuring verified incident outcomes, such as time to accurate diagnosis, time to resolution and avoided false escalations, reveals whether the AI-assisted workflow delivers practical benefit. Compare those measures with an appropriate baseline and confirm that apparent improvements are not achieved by unsafe shortcuts or hidden analyst effort. This complements labeled-case accuracy testing by assessing live operational impact. Both evaluation approaches make improvement claims falsifiable rather than subjective.
Incorrect Answers
A:A verbose answer can sound persuasive without identifying the actual root cause of a network incident. Counting generated words measures response length, not factual precision, false-alarm rate or operational value. The evaluation should compare recommendations with known incident labels and actual engineer-verified outcomes. Length might be a usability consideration in a separate interface review, but it cannot substantiate improved fault prioritization or safer network changes.
C:Model parameter count describes one aspect of a machine-learning system's size, not whether it predicts network faults correctly or helps operators resolve incidents. A larger model can still hallucinate the wrong device, misinterpret syslog severity or recommend disruptive configuration changes. The scenario asks for evidence of improved incident outcomes, so compare evaluated recommendations and operational metrics rather than treating model scale as an automatic performance guarantee.
D:A string that parses as valid JSON may still contain incorrect device identities, unsupported commands or dangerous remediation proposals. Syntax validation is useful for making an automation interface predictable, but it does not establish factual truth or operational authorization. Incident recommendations must be checked against network state, known cases and measurable results. Relying on well-formed JSON alone would confuse data representation with the accuracy of the suggested fix.
Question 316
An incident analyst receives messages from different routers and wants to separate routing-protocol events from interface-link events. What metadata in a Cisco syslog message assists this classification?
- DHCP lease duration
- The IP TTL of the collector packet
- The DNS zone serial of the collector
- The facility identifier preceding the severity and mnemonic
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Cisco IOS syslog messages commonly use a header pattern such as %OSPF-5-ADJCHG or %LINK-3-UPDOWN. The facility name before the severity and mnemonic identifies the reporting component or subsystem, helping distinguish routing-protocol activity from link events. Severity indicates urgency, and the mnemonic names the event type. Analysts can group facilities across devices while retaining timestamps and full message content for diagnosis. This classification does not depend on packet TTL or DHCP leases.
Incorrect Answers
A:A DHCP lease duration indicates how long an assigned IPv4 configuration remains valid before renewal or expiration, not which Cisco subsystem emitted a syslog message. An interface event and a routing-protocol event could occur during the same lease interval. The analyst needs a field in each log header that identifies the reporting facility. DHCP lease timing is relevant to address lifecycle troubleshooting but cannot classify these log sources.
B:The IP TTL field limits the number of routed hops a datagram may traverse and changes as routers forward packets. It is not part of Cisco's %FACILITY-SEVERITY-MNEMONIC syslog classification header. A syslog collector might receive packets with different TTLs without learning whether the event came from OSPF or a physical interface. Reading the message's facility identifier is more directly connected to the source subsystem.
C:A DNS zone serial tracks updates to authoritative name-service records and can help secondary servers recognize zone changes. It does not classify the origin of interface-link versus routing-protocol events in Cisco IOS syslog output. Even if router names resolve through DNS, that only supports addressing and identification of devices. The analyst should inspect the syslog header's facility and mnemonic rather than the collector's DNS metadata.
Question 317
Which TWO statements are accurate about Wi-Fi security protocol selection? Choose TWO.
- An open SSID should not be assumed to provide link-layer traffic confidentiality
- WPA3-Personal always authenticates users with a centralized TACACS+ server
- WPA2 requires every client to use obsolete WEP encryption
- WPA2-Enterprise can use individual user identities through 802.1X
- SSID hiding eliminates the need for wireless authentication
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:An open wireless SSID generally provides no conventional WPA link-layer encryption between client and access point. A user should not assume confidentiality merely because a WLAN is discoverable or requires accepting a splash page; application-level encryption may still protect particular traffic separately. This matters when assessing exposure on public guest networks. WPA2/WPA3 secured modes offer link-layer protection according to their configured authentication and cipher mechanisms.
D:WPA2-Enterprise commonly uses IEEE 802.1X with an EAP authentication exchange and a backend authentication service to validate individual user or device identities. This helps administrators revoke one account or certificate without changing a shared password across all clients. RADIUS is a common transport for the authentication service, with specific EAP methods chosen by security policy. The individual-identity design differs fundamentally from a PSK shared by an entire WLAN.
Incorrect Answers
B:WPA3-Personal uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals, or SAE, to authenticate with a shared password-derived exchange on compatible deployments. It does not always require individual accounts on a centralized TACACS+ authentication server. Enterprise Wi-Fi designs commonly use 802.1X with a RADIUS-backed service for separate identities, which is a different security mode. The word Personal in WPA3 is the decisive clue that this option's universal TACACS+ claim is wrong.
C:WPA2 modernized WLAN security around AES-based CCMP protection in normal supported configurations; it does not require legacy WEP. WEP is an older vulnerable cipher family and would fail the desired modern security baseline. The question contrasts security protocol categories rather than particular hardware vendors. Confusing WPA2 with WEP would reverse the intended progression from obsolete wireless confidentiality mechanisms to stronger enterprise and personal authentication choices.
E:Disabling SSID broadcasting makes ordinary network discovery less convenient for some clients, but it does not provide authentication or meaningful protection against a passive observer who can see management or association traffic. A hidden SSID can still be learned and does not encrypt data. Security depends on correctly configured WPA2/WPA3 protection and identity policy, not the name's advertised visibility. Treat hiding as cosmetic rather than a credential substitute.
Question 318
A distribution switch must prevent a less-trusted downstream switch from advertising a superior root bridge on one of its designated ports. Which spanning-tree protection should be considered?
- Root Guard
- Loop Guard
- BPDU Filter
- PortFast alone
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Root Guard is applied to an appropriate designated switchport where a switch should not accept a superior spanning-tree root from a less-trusted downstream neighbor. If superior BPDUs appear, the port can enter a root-inconsistent blocking condition until the improper advertisements cease. This protects the selected root placement without permanently reconfiguring every bridge. The scenario's concern is preventing downstream takeover of root selection, making Root Guard the direct feature to consider.
Incorrect Answers
B:Loop Guard protects against certain spanning-tree loops caused by unexpected loss of BPDUs on ports that should continue receiving them, such as non-designated roles under supported operation. It does not specifically stop a downstream switch from advertising a superior root bridge on a designated interface. The question is about controlling root authority, not missing BPDU reception. Root Guard provides the more directly matched protection for the stated threat.
C:BPDU Filter suppresses or ignores spanning-tree control information in supported configurations, and improper use can conceal topology changes and introduce loops. It is not the recommended way to accept BPDUs while refusing superior-root takeover from an untrusted downstream bridge. The stem explicitly identifies superior root advertisements as the hazard, so a feature that detects and blocks that root-inconsistent condition is better than suppressing the protocol messages altogether.
D:PortFast speeds the transition of suitable edge access interfaces into forwarding, assuming ordinary endpoint rather than downstream bridge attachment. It does not by itself enforce which switch may become spanning-tree root on a designated network-to-switch link. Using PortFast as the only safeguard toward an untrusted switch could hide a serious topology design mistake. Root Guard is the targeted control for a downstream bridge trying to become a superior root.
Question 319
A router is planned with 192.0.2.18/28 on Gi0/0 and 192.0.2.22/29 on Gi0/1. Both interfaces would connect to separate Layer 3 LANs. What addressing flaw should be corrected before configuring the two interfaces?
- The two configured interface addresses belong to overlapping IPv4 subnets, so distinct routed LANs need nonoverlapping allocations
- The addresses are in separate RFC1918 private ranges and cannot communicate
- An Ethernet router cannot have IPv4 addresses on more than one physical interface
- The /29 mask always reserves all eight addresses, leaving no addresses for any hosts
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The proposed 192.0.2.18/28 interface belongs to 192.0.2.16 through.31, while 192.0.2.22/29 belongs to 192.0.2.16 through.23. Those connected prefixes overlap, yet the design describes separate Layer 3 LANs on Gi0/0 and Gi0/1. That creates ambiguous routing and is generally rejected by normal IOS interface addressing rules. Allocate nonoverlapping networks or redesign the shared subnet arrangement before configuring two distinct routed interfaces.
Incorrect Answers
B:Neither proposed address is an RFC1918 private address: both lie in the 192.0.2.0/24 documentation-only IPv4 range reserved for examples. Even on a real deployment using separate private networks, private addressing alone would not prevent normal routing between them. The actual configuration flaw is that the /29 on Gi0/1 is contained within the /28 on Gi0/0. Subnet overlap, not address privacy, must be corrected.
C:Routers are designed to place distinct IP prefixes on different routed Ethernet interfaces and forward packets between those networks. Having more than one IPv4-configured interface is ordinary router operation. Here the problem is the proposed reuse of address space between separate ports, not the number of physical interfaces. An interface on 192.0.2.16/28 overlaps a second on 192.0.2.16/29, so their subnet allocations need separation.
D:A conventional IPv4 /29 contains eight addresses: one network identifier, one directed broadcast and six ordinary assignable host addresses. It does not reserve all eight. In the supplied address plan, 192.0.2.22 would actually be an assignable host in 192.0.2.16/29. The problem is that its /29 overlaps Gi0/0's broader /28, not that /29 subnetting leaves no hosts.
Question 320
The routing table contains S 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.0.2.1 and S 203.0.113.32/28 via 198.51.100.2. Which TWO destinations will match the /28 route instead of the default? Choose TWO.
- 203.0.113.31
- 203.0.113.33
- 203.0.113.48
- 192.0.2.1
- 203.0.113.46
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:The destination 203.0.113.33 is inside the /28 interval 203.0.113.32 through.47. The /28 static route is therefore a longer matching prefix than 0.0.0.0/0, so it takes precedence under ordinary destination-based forwarding. Provided the specific route is installed with a usable next hop, traffic for.33 uses 198.51.100.2 rather than the default next hop 192.0.2.1.
E:The destination 203.0.113.46 lies in the 203.0.113.32/28 prefix because a /28 covers sixteen values, from.32 through.47. That makes the configured specific static route the preferred match over the /0 default when both are installed. The next hop for the /28 is 198.51.100.2. The selected answer tests membership near the upper boundary rather than just recognizing the first host in the block.
Incorrect Answers
A:203.0.113.31 is just below the configured 203.0.113.32/28 block, whose addresses begin at.32 and end at.47. It cannot match that more-specific static route, so the router uses another installed matching route, here the 0/0 default. This illustrates that matching depends on the prefix boundaries, not whether an address looks numerically close to the destination subnet.
C:203.0.113.48 starts the next /28 block after the configured 203.0.113.32/28 destination. It does not match the specific route, even though it is adjacent to the.32–.47 range. With no other longer matching route stated, the default via 192.0.2.1 handles it. Conflating sequential host numbers with prefix membership would produce the wrong forwarding decision.
D:192.0.2.1 is displayed as the default route's next-hop address, not as a member of the separate 203.0.113.32/28 destination prefix. A packet addressed to 192.0.2.1 may use connected or other routes according to the actual table, but it is not within the /28 under evaluation. The question asks which destinations match that specific prefix, not which address functions as the default gateway.