Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 30
Question 290
A fingerprint scan unlocks an enrolled authenticator that produces a signed login assertion. Which description correctly classifies the biometric?
- A routing protocol metric
- A secret that should be published as a reusable password
- An inherence authentication factor
- An ACL implicit deny entry
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A fingerprint is an inherence authentication factor because it is based on a physical characteristic of the person. In the described workflow, it unlocks a registered authenticator whose cryptographic key generates the signed login assertion, so the biometric need not be transmitted as the network password. The factor is distinct from possession of the authenticator itself. Correct enrollment, liveness checks and protected local matching help reduce biometric misuse.
Incorrect Answers
A:A routing-protocol metric expresses relative path preference or cost and is processed by routers to select forwarding routes. A fingerprint is a physical characteristic used in verifying an individual's identity, not a numerical network path measure. The scenario involves unlocking an authenticator that then signs a login assertion, with no routing calculation involved. The relevant factor class is inherence: something the person is, not information about packets or subnet topology.
B:A biometric template is sensitive authentication data and should not be published as a reusable password or shared freely across systems. Biometric characteristics are difficult to change after compromise and should be protected through appropriate hardware, secure matching and privacy controls. In this example the fingerprint unlocks a device-held authenticator, which then produces a signed assertion. That mechanism does not turn the biometric into a conventional password suitable for public distribution.
D:An implicit deny in an access control list is the default rule that discards packets when no earlier permit statement matches. It is a network traffic policy concept, not a category of human authentication factor. A biometric scanner can influence whether a person unlocks a credential, but it does not evaluate source and destination packet headers like an ACL. The question asks to classify the fingerprint used during login, not network packet disposition.
Question 291
A remote access network 203.0.113.128/25 has been migrated behind next hop 192.0.2.6, but R1 still contains a static /24 route through the old peer. What is the precise destination network and mask for the new static route?
203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0203.0.113.128 255.255.255.128203.0.113.128 255.255.255.255203.0.113.0 255.255.255.128
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The migrated range 203.0.113.128/25 begins at.128 and ends at.255, and its dotted-decimal mask is 255.255.255.128. This is the exact network-and-mask pair required for the new static route through 192.0.2.6. The old /24 would be unnecessarily broad, while /32 would target one host. After changing the route, verify next-hop reachability and any existing more-specific routes so the intended subset alone uses the new path.
Incorrect Answers
A:The prefix 203.0.113.0/24 covers all 256 addresses in that documentation block, whereas the moved network is only 203.0.113.128/25. Retaining the /24 as the new static destination would steer traffic for unaffected addresses in the lower half toward the migrated peer. That violates the precise replacement requirement. Use the subnet network ID.128 and a /25 mask of 255.255.255.128 to identify only the upper half.
C:The /32 mask 255.255.255.255 denotes one individual IPv4 destination address, here 203.0.113.128, rather than the complete migrated /25. Additionally,.128 is the network ID under the /25 and is not a conventional host. This mask would leave the remaining upper-half addresses without the intended new route. The question asks for the entire /25 remote-access network, so a 255.255.255.128 mask is necessary.
D:Using the /25 mask with destination network 203.0.113.0/25 would describe the lower half of the /24, addresses.0 through.127, not the migrated.128–.255 half. The mask is the correct size but the network ID is wrong. Both components must agree on the desired block boundary. Route configuration should identify 203.0.113.128 255.255.255.128 rather than steering an unaffected lower subnet toward the new peer.
Question 292
A switch reports that an LACP bundle is not forming, and the operator needs the directly connected partner’s LACP identifiers and port information for the link. Which command targets that control protocol?
- show spanning-tree root
- show ip arp
- show lacp neighbor
- show interfaces status
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:show lacp neighbor reports directly connected LACP partner information on supported Cisco platforms, including identifiers and port-related details useful when a bundle refuses to form. That targets the negotiation protocol rather than generic interface or route state. Compare partner identity, port state and channel configuration with the expected design, then verify show etherchannel summary for actual bundling. LACP compatibility, VLAN properties and physical link health all can affect the final Port-channel status.
Incorrect Answers
A:show spanning-tree root displays root-bridge information for the switch's spanning-tree instances, useful for diagnosing loop-free topology and path costs. It does not list the LACP actor and partner identifiers exchanged during EtherChannel negotiation. A switch may have a healthy STP root path while a Port-channel member fails to bundle. The question asks for the directly connected aggregation partner's LACP state, so the appropriate command must inspect that protocol's neighbor information.
B:show ip arp shows IPv4 neighbor IP-to-MAC resolution for connected links and is useful for confirming next-hop delivery after an IP path is selected. LACP operates at the Ethernet link-aggregation layer and exchanges actor/partner identifiers independently of ARP. An ARP table cannot prove which physical member ports have compatible LACP partners. The missing control information belongs to the LACP neighbor display rather than a routed neighbor cache.
D:show interfaces status summarizes physical interface conditions such as link state, speed, duplex or VLAN depending on platform. It can reveal a down cable, but not the detailed LACP partner system and port identifiers the operator specifically requested. A port can be physically up yet fail aggregation because of LACP or configuration mismatch. Inspect physical status as a supporting check and use the LACP neighbor command for control-protocol evidence.
Question 293
A new VLAN must accommodate at least 60 conventional IPv4 hosts. The administrator wants the longest possible prefix that still fits all hosts in one subnet. Which allocation is appropriate?
- A /27, which ordinarily permits 30 host addresses
- A /25, which permits 126 hosts but consumes a larger address block
- A /26, which permits 62 usable addresses
- A /28, which permits 14 ordinary hosts
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A /26 IPv4 subnet has six host bits, so it contains 64 total addresses with 62 conventional usable host addresses. That meets the minimum of 60 endpoints and uses fewer addresses than a /25. A /27 would provide only 30 and cannot meet the requirement. Therefore /26 is the longest prefix that satisfies both capacity and address-efficiency constraints in this scenario, assuming ordinary network and broadcast reservations.
Incorrect Answers
A:A /27 leaves five host bits, yielding 32 total IPv4 addresses and 30 conventional usable addresses after reserving network and broadcast. The VLAN needs at least 60 hosts, so that allocation is too small even though it uses a long prefix. The objective is the longest prefix that still fits all hosts, not simply the smallest possible subnet. A /26 offers enough capacity without the larger waste of a /25.
B:A /25 provides 128 total addresses and 126 conventional usable hosts, so it could accommodate the requested 60 devices. However, it consumes twice as many addresses as a /26 and is therefore not the longest acceptable prefix. The question includes an efficiency requirement, making capacity alone insufficient. Select the smallest qualifying subnet, which has 62 usable addresses and is represented by /26 under ordinary reservations.
D:A /28 contains only 16 total addresses and 14 ordinary usable IPv4 host addresses. That is far below the 60-device requirement and cannot be made sufficient merely by choosing a favorable network ID. A longer prefix means a smaller subnet, so /28 is too restrictive here. The correct design must leave at least six host bits, giving /26 with 62 usable addresses, rather than four host bits.
Question 294
A router on a broadcast OSPFv2 segment has interface priority 0. It can see other OSPF neighbors and share IPv4 routes. Which TWO statements about its election behavior are correct? Choose TWO.
- Priority zero forces that interface to become the DR ahead of all other candidates
- The interface cannot be elected DR or BDR while its priority remains zero
- The router must stop advertising its connected OSPF networks as a consequence of priority zero alone
- The interface becomes the STP root bridge automatically
- The router can still participate in OSPF as a non-DR/non-BDR neighbor
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:An OSPF interface with priority 0 is excluded from DR and BDR election on a broadcast network, even though it can participate in the routing protocol. This is useful when a router should exchange routes but not assume the DR role. Eligibility depends on the priority setting, not merely on the router's uptime or advertised networks. The question explicitly keeps the interface at zero, so it cannot win either election position.
E:Priority zero prevents DR/BDR election but does not prevent the router from acting as an ordinary OSPF neighbor, often described as a DROTHER on broadcast Ethernet. It can still synchronize with the DR or BDR as appropriate and exchange routing information. This supports designs where a router should participate without assuming coordination responsibility for the segment. Verify adjacency and area configuration separately, since priority alone does not guarantee protocol health.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF interface priority zero makes a router ineligible to become designated or backup designated router on an applicable broadcast segment. It does not force the interface to win the election. Positive priorities are compared among eligible routers, with router ID breaking ties. The question says this router can see neighbors, which is consistent with a DROTHER role. Misreading zero as maximum priority would invert the intended election control.
C:DR election eligibility and route advertisement are separate aspects of OSPF operation. A priority-zero router can still form appropriate neighbor relationships and advertise connected prefixes through the OSPF process, subject to normal area and interface configuration. Setting zero does not automatically delete its networks or disable the protocol. The feature only removes the interface from consideration for designated and backup designated router roles on multiaccess topology.
D:Spanning Tree Protocol elects Layer 2 root bridges using bridge identifiers, while OSPF DR priority governs routing-protocol roles on certain IP multiaccess links. Setting an OSPF interface priority to zero does not alter an Ethernet switch's STP bridge priority or elect it as root. A router may participate in both environments through different interfaces, but the control rules are independent. The scenario specifically asks for OSPF election behavior, not Layer 2 loop prevention.
Question 295
A team moves from logging into switches one at a time toward an orchestration platform. Which new risk becomes especially important to manage?
- Compromise or misuse of the central controller credentials could affect many devices
- The Ethernet MTU necessarily drops to 64 bytes
- Users can no longer reach local default gateways
- All switch trunks become native VLAN 4094 automatically
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A centralized orchestration controller can apply configuration and policy to many managed devices from one administrative interface, increasing both efficiency and the potential impact of compromised credentials. If an attacker gains privileged controller access, the blast radius may extend across multiple switches and sites. Use strong authentication, least privilege, approval workflows, secure APIs, audit trails and recovery plans. This concentration of management authority is the specific new risk compared with isolated per-device sessions.
Incorrect Answers
B:Ethernet MTU controls how large a frame payload can be on a link and does not automatically fall to 64 bytes because management moves from per-device CLI to a controller. Platform and encapsulation choices affect MTU, but central orchestration is not a physical frame-size change. An MTU mismatch could be a separate operational problem, yet it is not the new security exposure described. The key concern is that one privileged management identity now affects many devices.
C:Network clients can continue using their locally configured default gateways and ordinary routing even when administrators change how device configurations are coordinated. A controller-based management architecture does not inherently remove gateway addresses or interrupt all local forwarding. Some services may depend on the controller, but the statement is too absolute. The question asks which risk becomes especially important: broad control-plane compromise, not automatic loss of basic client-to-gateway connectivity.
D:A controller does not automatically rewrite every switch trunk's native VLAN to 4094. VLAN configuration remains governed by the network design and the settings applied through the management system. A misconfigured controller could push harmful VLAN changes, but that is an error or misuse risk rather than an unavoidable property. The scenario's central concern is protecting controller credentials and authorization because a single wrong or malicious policy could propagate widely.
Question 296
A newly installed desktop broadcasts DHCPDISCOVER because it has no IPv4 lease. Which description correctly identifies the DHCP process role?
- An SNMP trap requests an IPv4 address from a manager
- The DNS server broadcasts an MX record to allocate the lease
- A routing protocol computes a best path and leases that next hop
- The client starts DHCP discovery so an available server can offer lease parameters
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A client without an IPv4 lease typically begins the DHCP process by broadcasting DHCPDISCOVER on its local segment. A reachable DHCP server, or a server reached through a suitable relay, can respond with an offer containing an address and configuration options. Subsequent request and acknowledgement steps complete the allocation under normal DHCPv4 behavior. The question identifies the initial discovery role, not the route-selection or DNS lookup functions that occur later.
Incorrect Answers
A:An SNMP trap is an event notification from a managed device to a monitoring system, not the initial message used by a workstation to obtain an IPv4 address. A DHCP client with no lease needs to discover available servers and negotiate parameters. SNMP may monitor DHCP infrastructure or interface status, but it does not implement the DHCP address-allocation exchange. The question explicitly names DHCPDISCOVER, which belongs to a client-server lease process.
B:DNS MX records identify mail exchangers for a domain and are not used to allocate workstation IPv4 leases. A client may learn a DNS resolver address through DHCP after successful negotiation, but that does not make DNS the source of its IP address. DHCP and DNS are separate services that frequently work together. The initial DHCPDISCOVER broadcast seeks a DHCP server able to offer address information, not a mail-routing record.
C:A routing protocol computes or advertises reachable destination prefixes and can help packets reach remote networks. It does not assign unique IPv4 host addresses and lease timers to a newly connected desktop. The client has no lease yet and uses the DHCP protocol to discover eligible configuration servers. Router reachability becomes important after the host receives addressing, but it is not a substitute for the DHCP discovery and offer exchange.
Question 297
Which TWO roles are associated with establishing and maintaining an IPsec VPN rather than with ordinary Ethernet switching? Choose TWO.
- Electing the lowest bridge ID as STP root
- Authenticating peer gateways or clients under the VPN policy
- Learning source MAC addresses in an access VLAN
- Assigning untagged switch frames to the native VLAN
- Negotiating cryptographic parameters and establishing security associations
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:IPsec VPN establishment ordinarily includes authentication of the intended peer gateway or client according to the configured trust method, preventing an arbitrary endpoint from silently joining a protected tunnel. Techniques can include pre-shared keys or certificates depending on deployment. Authentication is distinct from encrypting the subsequent user traffic, but is a necessary part of establishing trustworthy security associations. The scenario explicitly asks about VPN setup and maintenance rather than Ethernet forwarding behavior.
E:IPsec peers negotiate or establish security associations containing the selected cryptographic algorithms, keys, lifetimes and traffic-protection parameters appropriate to the configured mode. This allows ESP or related protection to operate consistently between tunnel endpoints. Security-association maintenance and rekeying remain part of VPN operation as conditions change. The process is unrelated to STP root election or VLAN MAC learning, which cannot supply cryptographic packet protection.
Incorrect Answers
A:The Spanning Tree Protocol root bridge is elected from bridge identifiers to maintain a loop-free Layer 2 switching topology. That function does not authenticate VPN gateways or establish cryptographic protection for IP packets. An IPsec tunnel may traverse an Ethernet domain where STP runs, but the election is unrelated to security-association negotiation. The question asks for IPsec-specific roles, making bridge election an inappropriate distractor even though both occur in network infrastructure.
C:Learning source MAC addresses is a normal Layer 2 switch function that associates Ethernet stations with ingress ports and VLANs. It does not identify or authenticate a remote IPsec peer across an untrusted routed network. A VPN gateway may use Ethernet switching underneath its IP path, but MAC learning cannot supply cryptographic trust or confidentiality. The IPsec roles in the choices concern peer identity and negotiated algorithms rather than local frame-forwarding entries.
D:An 802.1Q native VLAN determines how untagged Ethernet frames are classified on a trunk port. It does not negotiate encryption keys, choose cipher suites or authenticate IPsec gateways. A tunnel packet might travel over a trunk as ordinary IP traffic, but its security is controlled by IPsec policy independently of VLAN classification. The question distinguishes VPN security-association duties from routine switch tagging and untagged-frame behavior.
Question 298
A port configured with PortFast and BPDU Guard receives an unexpected BPDU from a newly attached unmanaged switch. What is the intended BPDU Guard response on a Catalyst switch?
- It increases the root bridge priority of the attached switch
- It enables LACP on the port
- It places the port into err-disabled state to protect against a possible loop
- It automatically changes the port into a routed interface
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:When BPDU Guard is enabled on an appropriate PortFast edge interface, receipt of an unexpected BPDU can place that port into err-disabled state to protect the switching topology. This prevents the newly attached switch from participating through the edge connection and potentially creating a loop or changing STP roles. Recovery normally requires correcting the attachment and following the platform's errdisable recovery procedure. The protective behavior is deliberate rather than an automatic trunk or routing conversion.
Incorrect Answers
A:An unexpected BPDU on a PortFast edge port can indicate that another bridge or switch has been connected where only an endpoint was expected. BPDU Guard does not respond by raising the external switch's bridge priority; a device cannot safely alter an unmanaged neighbor in that way. Its goal is to protect the local topology by stopping a risky connection. The configured action on supported Catalyst switches is to place the affected port in an err-disabled state.
B:LACP negotiates EtherChannel membership among compatible Ethernet links and does not provide the immediate protective response to an unexpected spanning-tree BPDU on an edge access port. Enabling aggregation would be unrelated and could add complexity to a port intended for one workstation. The incident suggests possible loop introduction through an attached switch. BPDU Guard acts by disabling the local edge interface rather than attempting to form a Port-channel with the new device.
D:A routed interface forwards IP packets according to Layer 3 configuration and is not automatically created because a PortFast access port receives a BPDU. Converting a switchport to routed mode would not be the defined BPDU Guard response and could disrupt endpoint connectivity. The control is designed to quarantine unexpected bridging behavior on an edge link. Port state protection and Layer 3 role selection are separate administrative decisions.
Question 299
An IPv6 host uses modified EUI-64 to derive a 64-bit interface identifier from a 48-bit MAC address. Which transformation is involved?
- Append sixteen zero bits to the MAC without modifying any address bit flags
- Copy the MAC unchanged into the low 48 IPv6 interface-identifier bits
- Replace the Ethernet OUI with an IPv4 address and reverse the entire byte sequence
- Insert fffe in the middle and invert the universal/local bit in the identifier
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The modified EUI-64 method splits a 48-bit Ethernet MAC into two halves, inserts the 16-bit value FF:FE between them, and inverts the universal/local bit in the first byte. This yields the 64-bit interface identifier used in certain IPv6 address-generation workflows. Current hosts may instead use randomized or stable privacy identifiers, so EUI-64 is not universal. The option accurately describes the specified transformation rather than generic address allocation.
Incorrect Answers
A:Modified EUI-64 does not simply append sixteen zeros to a 48-bit MAC address. It inserts the ff:fe sequence between MAC halves and flips the universal/local bit in the resulting identifier. Appending zeros would produce a different bit pattern and omit the address-type transformation. The question asks for the historical method of deriving a 64-bit IPv6 interface identifier from a MAC, so the insertion-and-bit-change details are essential.
B:Copying a 48-bit MAC unchanged into the low bits of a 64-bit interface identifier would not implement the modified EUI-64 algorithm. It neither fills the middle with FF:FE nor adjusts the universal/local flag, which are defining steps. Other IID-generation mechanisms exist and may be preferred for privacy, but the question explicitly specifies modified EUI-64. The correct transformation must produce the 64-bit structure from the original 48-bit address.
C:Modified EUI-64 derives an IPv6 interface identifier from a MAC address; it does not replace the Organizationally Unique Identifier with an IPv4 address or reverse every byte. IPv4 source or destination values play no role in the specified derivation. A client might also create stable or temporary IPv6 interface identifiers through other techniques, but those are separate algorithms. The requested legacy transformation uses FF:FE insertion and a bit flip.
Question 300
A technician sees O 172.16.0.0/16 [110/80] via 10.0.0.2, 00:00:14, Gi0/1. Which THREE pieces of information can be read directly from this line? Choose THREE.
- The route was learned through OSPF
- 10.0.0.2 is the complete destination subnet
- The administrative distance shown is 110
- The routing metric shown is 110
- The destination prefix is 172.16.0.0/16
- The route necessarily identifies the OSPF designated router as Gi0/1
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:The leading O code in an IOS IPv4 route table identifies OSPF-learned reachability. It describes the route's source protocol, independently of the destination subnet and outgoing link. The bracket also shows a typical OSPF administrative distance of 110, but the code alone identifies the family. The router must still have a usable next hop and working interface for packets to reach the destination. This is one of the three fields the question explicitly asks to interpret.
C:The bracket [110/80] follows IOS's administrative-distance/metric convention for this route, so 110 is the administrative distance. This value is a route-source preference used when comparing eligible sources for the same destination prefix. It is not the OSPF cost, which appears after the slash as 80. The line directly supplies both values, and reading their positions correctly is important when explaining why one routing source is installed.
E:The destination prefix is the network printed immediately after the O route code: 172.16.0.0/16. That prefix covers IPv4 addresses whose first sixteen bits match the network, subject to normal longest-prefix routing. The next hop and interface are separately identified as 10.0.0.2 and Gi0/1. The syntax therefore supplies an explicit destination network, rather than merely a gateway, and the prefix is one of the three directly readable facts.
Incorrect Answers
B:The address 10.0.0.2 appears after via, meaning it is the next-hop IP toward the destination, not the destination subnet itself. The actual destination prefix is printed before the brackets as 172.16.0.0/16. Confusing next-hop and destination fields would make route interpretation and troubleshooting inaccurate. The next hop can belong to a different connected transit network because its role is to forward packets toward the remote prefix.
D:The value 110 in [110/80] is the administrative distance of the OSPF route, not the OSPF metric. The metric is 80, the number after the slash, and helps select among appropriate OSPF paths. Administrative distance is used for route-source preference comparisons. Selecting 110 as metric would swap these distinct concepts even though both are numerical. The question requires interpreting the actual cost field as part of IOS route notation.
F:Gi0/1 at the end of the route line identifies the local egress interface associated with forwarding toward next hop 10.0.0.2. It does not by itself name the OSPF designated router, which is a separate role elected on certain multiaccess network types. A particular neighbor might be DR, but that cannot be concluded solely from this interface field. The question asks for information directly encoded in the route line, so the claimed DR identity is unsupported.