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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 29

Question 280

R1 and R2 compete to become DR on a fresh OSPF broadcast segment. Their interface priorities are both 10 and their router IDs are 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2. Which candidate wins the tie?

  1. R1 because 1.1.1.1 is the numerically smaller router ID
  2. Whichever router carries the numerically smaller IPv4 default gateway
  3. Both become DR simultaneously because equal priority cannot be resolved
  4. R2 because RID 2.2.2.2 is higher than 1.1.1.1

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both candidates have OSPF interface priority 10, so the DR election compares their router IDs and favors the numerically higher 2.2.2.2 on R2. This is the normal tie-break for a fresh OSPF broadcast-network election. Router IDs must be unique in the routing domain, and an established DR is not automatically displaced solely by a later higher-priority arrival. The fresh-election assumption avoids that nonpreemptive behavior and makes R2 the correct candidate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

When OSPF interface priorities tie in a fresh DR election, the router ID is used as a tie-breaker, and the numerically higher router ID wins. R1's 1.1.1.1 is lower than R2's 2.2.2.2, so R1 is not favored under the stated equal priorities. Both routers remain eligible because their priorities are nonzero. This is separate from spanning-tree elections, which may prefer lower bridge identifiers.

B:

An IPv4 default gateway is a forwarding next hop for otherwise unmatched destinations; its numerical size does not determine OSPF DR selection. The election uses OSPF interface priorities and then router IDs when necessary. Routers may have different default routes and still form OSPF adjacencies on the same broadcast link. The question provides the tie-break fields directly, so a default-route address is not relevant to deciding the DR.

C:

Equal interface priorities do not force a permanent tie with two simultaneous OSPF designated routers. The protocol has a router-ID tie-break procedure for eligible candidates, assuming a fresh election and appropriate broadcast network type. Here 2.2.2.2 is higher than 1.1.1.1 and resolves the comparison. Normal OSPF DR elections are also nonpreemptive after establishment, but the stem expressly describes a new election rather than an incumbent DR.

Question 281

Two VLAN interfaces, Vlan10 and Vlan20, both show up/up with valid IPv4 gateway addresses on a multilayer switch. Hosts can reach their own gateways but cannot reach the other subnet. No ACL blocks the traffic. Which global setting should the administrator verify?

  1. switchport trunk native vlan 1
  2. spanning-tree portfast default
  3. lldp run
  4. ip routing

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

On capable Catalyst multilayer switches, ip routing enables IPv4 packet forwarding between locally connected routed interfaces, including operational SVIs for VLAN 10 and VLAN 20. Without that global capability, hosts may reach their own gateway addresses yet fail to traverse to the other subnet. Verify the setting, the connected routes and any platform-specific licensing or feature mode. The absence of an ACL block and the working SVIs make disabled Layer 3 routing the direct suspect.

Incorrect Answers

A:

switchport trunk native vlan 1 concerns the VLAN assigned to untagged frames on a trunk, not whether a multilayer switch forwards IPv4 packets between routed VLAN interfaces. The given SVIs are already up/up and have their gateway addresses, so clients can reach those directly attached addresses. The remaining problem is transit routing across distinct IPv4 subnets. Changing the trunk native VLAN may introduce a mismatch without enabling that Layer 3 function.

B:

PortFast influences spanning-tree edge-port transition behavior on suitable access links, allowing hosts to reach forwarding promptly. It does not authorize the switch to route IP packets between operational SVI gateways. Because both VLAN interfaces are up/up and their own hosts can reach them, the question narrows attention to inter-VLAN packet forwarding rather than link-start convergence. The correct global setting enables routing, while PortFast remains an independent Layer 2 optimization.

C:

lldp run activates a standards-based Layer 2 discovery protocol that advertises and receives neighboring device information. That can help inventory the links among switches and routers but does not create Layer 3 paths between separate IPv4 VLAN networks. The SVIs and host-gateway communication already work according to the scenario. Enabling discovery would not fix a missing global inter-VLAN forwarding function; verify the switch's routing configuration instead.

Question 282

A static default route has been selected. Its table line reads S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.0.2.1, and the heading reports Gateway of last resort is 192.0.2.1. What does that heading mean?

  1. All packets, including those for directly connected subnets, must be sent to 192.0.2.1
  2. 192.0.2.1 is the IPv4 address of the local router interface itself
  3. The router has a selected default next hop at 192.0.2.1
  4. The router has no usable route for any IPv4 destination

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The route S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.0.2.1 identifies a selected static default route whose next hop is 192.0.2.1. IOS therefore reports that address as the gateway of last resort. Traffic to destinations without more-specific installed routes can use it, provided the next hop resolves and policy permits forwarding. The asterisk denotes default-route candidacy, and the default is less specific than any ordinary destination prefix.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A gateway of last resort is a default next hop for destinations that lack a more-specific installed matching route. Directly connected subnets, local host addresses and other specific destinations continue using their own longer-prefix entries when available. The default does not force every packet through 192.0.2.1. The question explicitly shows an S* 0.0.0.0/0 route, which is a fallback rather than an override of all existing routing information.

B:

The router's local interface address is normally identified through configured interface details or a local route entry, not determined merely by the heading Gateway of last resort is .... Here 192.0.2.1 is displayed as the next hop for a static default route. It may be an upstream neighbor rather than an address owned by this router. The heading describes selected forwarding intent, not ownership of the IPv4 identity.

D:

A routing table can contain connected, static and dynamically learned routes while also having a selected default route. The displayed S* entry directly disproves the claim that no IPv4 destination is usable. Even without a default, specifically matched routes may remain valid. The question asks for the meaning of a configured last-resort gateway, which is positive evidence of a fallback next hop, not total loss of forwarding functionality.

Question 283

A switch learns source MAC 00aa.00bb.00cc on Gi1/0/8 in VLAN 20 after it was previously learned on Gi1/0/4 in that same VLAN. There is no port-security violation and the ports are not an EtherChannel. Which TWO outcomes are expected after the MAC move? Choose TWO.

  1. The VLAN 20 MAC table updates that MAC address to its latest learned ingress port Gi1/0/8
  2. The switch is required to administratively shut Gi1/0/8 because every MAC move is always a security violation
  3. Subsequent known-unicast traffic destined for that MAC in VLAN 20 is forwarded toward Gi1/0/8
  4. The same dynamic unicast MAC address must be permanently active on both switchports in VLAN 20
  5. The switch automatically changes the VLAN 20 SVI mask to follow the moving MAC

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

A learning switch updates its VLAN-scoped forwarding database when a frame arrives with a source MAC on a different ingress interface. Here the same address previously associated with Gi1/0/4 is observed on Gi1/0/8, so the current dynamic location becomes Gi1/0/8. The question explicitly excludes security violations and aggregation special cases. This movement can occur when an endpoint is physically relocated or when topology changes cause a new path.

C:

Once VLAN 20's dynamic MAC entry for 00aa.00bb.00cc is refreshed on Gi1/0/8, subsequent known-unicast frames destined to that address are forwarded toward Gi1/0/8, assuming it is operational and allowed to forward. This is the practical effect of source-MAC learning: updating how future destination lookups are resolved. No simultaneous forwarding to the old port is necessary. The behavior is local to the relevant VLAN's forwarding context.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Port security can be configured to react to an unauthorized source MAC or a violation of a defined secure-MAC policy, but every ordinary dynamic MAC move is not automatically a security event requiring shutdown. The stem specifically rules out a port-security violation, so normal learning should proceed. Err-disabling the new port simply because a known address moved would disrupt legitimate endpoint relocation. Observe the MAC update and assess unusual moves separately if they recur.

D:

A normal dynamic unicast MAC address should have one current learned egress location per VLAN forwarding context, rather than remain permanently active on two unrelated physical access ports at once. A switch updates the entry when it sees the source at its new port. EtherChannel members are a separate logical aggregation case expressly excluded by the question. Holding both locations simultaneously would create ambiguous known-unicast forwarding and does not match ordinary MAC learning.

E:

An SVI subnet mask defines IPv4 network membership and gateway behavior for the VLAN's Layer 3 interface. It does not need to change when an Ethernet endpoint's source MAC is learned on a new physical access port within the same VLAN. MAC learning is Layer 2 forwarding state; IP prefix configuration is a separate administrative setting. The question supplies no address-plan change, so adjusting the VLAN 20 SVI mask would be an unrelated and potentially disruptive operation.

Question 284

A Cisco switch already has management IP reachability, SSH host keys and a valid local user account. Which TWO IOS settings specifically restrict VTY remote sessions to SSH and require SSH protocol version 2? Choose TWO.

  1. transport input ssh under the VTY lines
  2. transport input all under the VTY lines
  3. login with only a shared line password but unrestricted transport methods
  4. ip ssh version 2 in global configuration
  5. exec-timeout 0 0 to keep remote sessions indefinitely

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Under the VTY line configuration, transport input ssh limits accepted incoming remote terminal sessions to SSH rather than Telnet or other transports. That addresses the requirement to restrict VTY access to encrypted SSH management. The router still needs correct host keys, user authentication and reachable management IP, which the question already provides. This command does not by itself force the SSH protocol version; that is controlled separately through the global SSH setting.

D:

The IOS global directive ip ssh version 2 specifies SSH version 2 behavior on supported devices, satisfying the protocol-version portion of the hardening request. SSHv2 provides a more appropriate secure management baseline than obsolete version 1. The VTY lines also need transport input ssh to reject other incoming terminal transports. Confirm available algorithms and software support, since enabling version 2 is one part of complete SSH server security.

Incorrect Answers

B:

transport input all permits every supported inbound transport method on the VTY lines rather than limiting access to SSH. Depending on platform configuration, that could include cleartext Telnet and contradict the stated secure-only requirement. The command is the wrong direction for management-plane hardening. Operators should explicitly specify only approved transports and verify that the device refuses unwanted protocols after applying the line configuration.

C:

A shared line password with a generic login directive can establish simple authentication, but it does not restrict which transport protocols the VTY accepts. The question already has a valid local named-user account and requires SSH-only connectivity plus protocol version 2. A legacy shared line password is neither of those requested settings. Use an approved authentication method separately, while applying transport input ssh and global SSH version control.

E:

exec-timeout 0 0 can effectively disable an idle-session timeout under Cisco IOS line configuration, allowing unattended administrative sessions to remain open indefinitely. That is usually undesirable for security and does not select SSH transport or its version. Idle timeouts are a useful separate management hardening control, not a substitute for protocol restriction. The scenario asks for two exact SSH settings, and disabling session expiration would not implement either of them.

Question 285

A company automates wireless VLAN provisioning but keeps final production approval with a human operator. Which advantage remains even though approval is not automated?

  1. It eliminates the need for operator authorization
  2. Repeatable provisioning and recorded proposed configuration differences
  3. It guarantees no change can cause an outage
  4. It changes an access VLAN into an OSPF area automatically

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Automated WLAN VLAN provisioning can apply a reviewed configuration pattern consistently and record the exact proposed differences before a human approves production execution. This reduces manual transcription errors and gives auditors a repeatable change record without removing the approval gate. Operators should still verify that the intended VLAN, SSID and controller policy mappings are correct for each site. Automation improves preparation and execution consistency even when final authorization remains a human decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Human approval can remain mandatory before an automation system deploys network changes, preserving separation of duties and reducing uncontrolled production updates. Repeatable provisioning does not remove the need for authorization; it makes approved changes easier to execute consistently. The option incorrectly claims that automation eliminates operator access control. A managed workflow should still identify who proposed and approved each WLAN VLAN change, even when the device commands are generated automatically.

C:

No automation framework can guarantee that every generated or reviewed network change is free from outages. A valid-looking configuration may still depend on wrong assumptions about controller software, VLAN allowed lists or live device state. Staging, rollback and after-change verification remain necessary. The question asks for benefits that survive human approval, not a promise of perfect availability. Repeatable workflows reduce certain mistakes but cannot eliminate all operational risk.

D:

An access VLAN is a Layer 2 broadcast-domain assignment, whereas an OSPF area organizes route-protocol relationships among participating routers. Automating one configuration does not transform it into the other protocol concept. WLAN client VLAN mapping and OSPF area membership may both appear in a large network design, but they serve distinct functions. The benefit of automation here is consistent provisioning and visible diffs, not an automatic change in the meaning of VLAN IDs.

Question 286

A device has multiple configured NTP peers. What is the principal meaning of the remote reference marked with an asterisk in conventional show ntp associations output?

  1. The server failed authentication and is excluded
  2. The peer is used exclusively for SNMP polling
  3. It is the peer with the largest configured stratum number
  4. It is the system peer currently selected for clock synchronization

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

In conventional Cisco show ntp associations output, an asterisk marks the system peer currently selected for local clock synchronization. This helps distinguish a configured or reachable candidate from the reference actually being used. Administrators should inspect show ntp status and peer reachability for further health confirmation, because selection can change as conditions change. The asterisk is about current reference choice, not an SNMP target or a protocol-error label.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An NTP association excluded because of authentication or reachability failure would not ordinarily carry the system-peer selection mark for the clock's active reference. Failure states are shown through other reachability and association indicators depending on IOS version. The question specifies the conventional asterisk marker, which denotes the selected synchronization peer rather than a rejected server. Check the full status output if the source's health needs independent confirmation.

B:

SNMP polling retrieves management object values and counters from agents using its own security and transport configuration. An NTP association display concerns time synchronization relationships and has no field that elects an exclusive SNMP polling target. A network management system might use both services, but the active clock peer is selected by NTP logic rather than by SNMP usage. The asterisk must be interpreted within the time-protocol table.

C:

NTP stratum indicates the distance of a clock from a reference in the synchronization hierarchy, with lower valid strata generally indicating proximity to a trusted source. The asterisk does not simply mark the peer with the highest numeric stratum, which might be a poorer reference. NTP selection considers reachability, quality and algorithmic factors. The displayed status symbol identifies the chosen system peer rather than a ranking based solely on the largest stratum value.

Question 287

R1 has a valid installed IPv4 route for 198.51.100.0/24. A transit packet destined for 198.51.100.9 reaches R1 with a time-to-live (TTL) value of 1. What does normal IPv4 forwarding do?

  1. Forward the packet using the installed route because a valid prefix bypasses TTL checks
  2. Discard the transit packet when TTL expires and normally send ICMP Time Exceeded if permitted
  3. Reset its TTL to 64 because R1 is the first router processing this packet
  4. Flood the packet over all ports in the destination VLAN instead of decrementing TTL

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

When a transit IPv4 packet arrives with TTL 1, normal router forwarding decrements it to zero, so the packet is not forwarded even if the destination route is present. The router drops it and normally can generate an ICMP Time Exceeded message toward the source, subject to filtering and rate limits. TTL prevents packets from circulating indefinitely in routing loops. This is also the mechanism used by traceroute probes to reveal intermediate hops.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A valid installed destination prefix identifies where a router would forward a packet if other forwarding requirements are satisfied. IPv4 transit routing still decrements the time-to-live on each hop, and a packet arriving with TTL 1 reaches zero before it can be sent onward. Routing-table validity does not override that loop-prevention rule. The correct operation is to discard the expired transit packet, with an ICMP Time Exceeded response when permitted by policy.

C:

Routers do not reset the TTL of each incoming IPv4 transit packet to a fresh default such as 64. Doing so would defeat the hop-limit mechanism designed to constrain loops. The initial TTL is set by the originating host or relevant packet creator, and forwarding routers decrement it. R1 is not entitled to treat itself as the source simply because it has a route to 198.51.100.0/24. The packet expires at this hop.

D:

Unknown-unicast flooding is a Layer 2 switching behavior within a VLAN when a destination MAC entry is missing. An IPv4 router performing transit forwarding does not bypass TTL rules by flooding an expiring packet across a destination VLAN. It first makes routing and validity decisions, including hop-limit processing. The packet with TTL 1 must be discarded before normal onward forwarding rather than replicated across available Ethernet ports.

Question 288

A trunk’s native VLAN is 99. It also carries ordinary data VLAN 20, which differs from the native VLAN. What is the normal 802.1Q treatment of VLAN 20 frames on this trunk?

  1. Transmit them with a VLAN 20 802.1Q tag
  2. Transmit them untagged and let the receiver assume VLAN 99
  3. Place them into VLAN 1 regardless of the configured native VLAN
  4. Convert them into IPv4 routed packets before crossing the trunk

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

On a normal 802.1Q trunk, frames belonging to a non-native VLAN such as data VLAN 20 carry an 802.1Q tag identifying that VLAN. The native VLAN is configured as 99, so ordinary untagged frames are associated with VLAN 99 according to the trunk rules. Both ends must agree on VLAN handling, and VLAN 20 should be permitted on the link. The tag ensures the receiving switch does not confuse VLAN 20 frames with native traffic.

Incorrect Answers

B:

If VLAN 20 frames were sent untagged on a trunk whose native VLAN is 99, the receiving switch would ordinarily classify them into VLAN 99 rather than the intended data VLAN. That would break segmentation and could create leakage or connectivity failure. Non-native VLANs are normally transported with explicit tags. The scenario makes VLAN 20 different from the configured native VLAN, so untagged transmission would not preserve its intended identity.

C:

VLAN 1 is often a default VLAN in some switch configurations, but the question explicitly sets the native VLAN to 99. There is no universal rule that non-native tagged frames are forcibly converted into VLAN 1. Standard trunk forwarding carries the tag for VLAN 20 and leaves its identifier intact across the link when permitted. Ignoring the configured native setting and assigning all frames to VLAN 1 would violate the provided trunk design.

D:

A Layer 2 802.1Q trunk forwards Ethernet frames among VLAN-aware interfaces and does not automatically convert every tagged frame into an IPv4 routed packet. Routing occurs only where a suitable Layer 3 gateway or SVI processes traffic between IP networks. Carrying VLAN 20 across a trunk normally preserves its Layer 2 membership through the VLAN tag. The question asks for tag treatment, not inter-VLAN or Internet routing behavior.

Question 289

A wireless laptop has no Ethernet jack and must reach a wired LAN over 802.11. What device bridges the radio client onto the distribution network?

  1. Use a wireless LAN controller as the only device transmitting 802.11 radio frames to the laptop
  2. Replace the radio access point with a PoE injector that terminates client associations
  3. An access point provides 802.11 radio access and bridges client frames toward the wired LAN
  4. Configure an Ethernet switchport as an 802.1Q trunk so it becomes a Wi-Fi transmitter

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An access point supplies the 802.11 radio interface to which a wireless station associates and connects its traffic toward the wired distribution network. It may bridge frames locally or tunnel client traffic to a controller depending on architecture, but the AP provides the client-facing RF attachment. The laptop has no Ethernet jack, so it must use that wireless link. Correct SSID, authentication, radio coverage and upstream connectivity remain necessary for end-to-end service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A wireless LAN controller can centrally manage supported APs and coordinate security, mobility and policy, but it is not normally the nearby 802.11 radio that a laptop directly associates with in a conventional controller-based WLAN. The client needs an AP radio on a receivable channel. The controller can be located elsewhere on the routed network, while the AP provides the physical wireless attachment. Treating the WLC alone as the transmitter would omit that access device.

B:

A PoE injector provides electrical power over Ethernet to supported powered devices such as access points. It does not supply an 802.11 transceiver, advertise SSIDs or associate a wireless laptop by itself. Power may be necessary for a ceiling AP, but the injector is not the network's wireless-to-wired bridge. The requirement specifically asks which functional device links a radio station with a wired LAN; that is an AP.

D:

An Ethernet switchport set to trunk mode can transport frames for multiple VLANs over a wired link, but it does not turn the switchport into an 802.11 transmitter. Wireless association requires compatible RF hardware and WLAN protocol operation, neither supplied by changing a VLAN mode. A trunk may connect an AP or controller under a suitable design, yet the client still associates with the AP radio. The port configuration cannot replace the wireless access device.

Question 290

A fingerprint scan unlocks an enrolled authenticator that produces a signed login assertion. Which description correctly classifies the biometric?

  1. A routing protocol metric
  2. A secret that should be published as a reusable password
  3. An inherence authentication factor
  4. An ACL implicit deny entry

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A fingerprint is an inherence authentication factor because it is based on a physical characteristic of the person. In the described workflow, it unlocks a registered authenticator whose cryptographic key generates the signed login assertion, so the biometric need not be transmitted as the network password. The factor is distinct from possession of the authenticator itself. Correct enrollment, liveness checks and protected local matching help reduce biometric misuse.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A routing-protocol metric expresses relative path preference or cost and is processed by routers to select forwarding routes. A fingerprint is a physical characteristic used in verifying an individual's identity, not a numerical network path measure. The scenario involves unlocking an authenticator that then signs a login assertion, with no routing calculation involved. The relevant factor class is inherence: something the person is, not information about packets or subnet topology.

B:

A biometric template is sensitive authentication data and should not be published as a reusable password or shared freely across systems. Biometric characteristics are difficult to change after compromise and should be protected through appropriate hardware, secure matching and privacy controls. In this example the fingerprint unlocks a device-held authenticator, which then produces a signed assertion. That mechanism does not turn the biometric into a conventional password suitable for public distribution.

D:

An implicit deny in an access control list is the default rule that discards packets when no earlier permit statement matches. It is a network traffic policy concept, not a category of human authentication factor. A biometric scanner can influence whether a person unlocks a credential, but it does not evaluate source and destination packet headers like an ACL. The question asks to classify the fingerprint used during login, not network packet disposition.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests