Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 27
Question 260
A team proposes an interface-only IPv4 static route to an off-link /24 on an Ethernet multiaccess segment. What operational concern makes a reachable next-hop IP preferable?
- The router may issue ARP for remote destination IPs instead of a single known neighbor
- Ethernet links are point-to-point by definition, so interface-only routes cannot be accepted
- A next-hop IP disables IPv4 routing automatically
- A next-hop IP converts the static route to an OSPF route
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:On an Ethernet multiaccess segment, an interface-only static route to a remote network can lead the router to treat remote destination addresses as if they were directly reachable on that LAN. It may generate ARP requests for many individual destinations rather than resolving one specified gateway, creating unnecessary traffic and ambiguous delivery. Naming the reachable next-hop IP makes the intended neighbor explicit. On a true point-to-point link, exit-interface-only routing has different operational implications.
Incorrect Answers
B:Ethernet is a multiaccess technology by design, even when a particular physical cable happens to connect only two devices. Cisco IOS may accept interface-only static routes on Ethernet, but their address-resolution behavior can be undesirable for remote destination prefixes. The issue is not blanket syntax prohibition. A point-to-point serial link has a more unambiguous single neighbor, whereas Ethernet ARP behavior makes an explicit next-hop IP preferable in the described case.
C:Specifying a next-hop IPv4 address in a static route guides recursive resolution and egress selection; it does not disable IP routing on the router. A reachable gateway is a normal forwarding prerequisite and can simplify ARP behavior on multiaccess links. The concern described is routing efficiency and unambiguous neighbor resolution, not loss of routing capability. Appropriate interface and global IP configuration remain operational with a next-hop static route.
D:Adding a next-hop IP does not transform a manually configured static route into an OSPF-learned route. IOS still labels it with the static route code and applies its configured administrative distance. OSPF route learning requires the OSPF process and appropriate neighbor and advertisement state. The choice of next-hop syntax affects route resolution, not the source protocol. The question is specifically about avoiding broad ARP behavior on an Ethernet multiaccess segment.
Question 261
A network standard assigns VLAN 99 to carry untagged management-related frames on an existing Catalyst 802.1Q trunk. Which interface command configures this native VLAN?
- switchport access vlan 99
- ip default-gateway 99.0.0.1
- switchport trunk native vlan 99
- spanning-tree vlan 99 root primary
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:switchport trunk native vlan 99 sets VLAN 99 as the native VLAN on a supported Catalyst 802.1Q trunk, so ordinary untagged frames are associated with that VLAN under the configured trunk behavior. This directly meets the stated standard. Both ends should use compatible native-VLAN settings and the relevant VLAN must be present, otherwise untagged traffic can be misclassified. Native VLAN selection is separate from the allowed VLAN list and management IP addressing.
Incorrect Answers
A:switchport access vlan 99 defines the ordinary untagged VLAN for a switchport operating in access mode. The scenario says the interface is an existing 802.1Q trunk with a management-related native VLAN, which is a separate trunk property. Access VLAN assignment cannot replace the native-VLAN command. An engineer should keep trunk mode consistent on both sides and configure VLAN 99 as native if the requirement specifically concerns untagged frames on that trunk.
B:ip default-gateway is used on certain nonrouting devices to specify where management traffic should go when it needs to leave the local subnet. Its argument should be an appropriate IPv4 next-hop address, not an arbitrary number derived from a VLAN identifier. The command does not set Ethernet tagging behavior or classify untagged trunk frames. Native VLAN membership is configured in the switchport's trunk settings independently of Layer 3 management reachability.
D:spanning-tree vlan 99 root primary influences the local switch's bridge priority for VLAN 99 so it is favored as an STP root under the relevant mode. It does not change how a trunk treats untagged traffic or configure the native VLAN. STP root selection and VLAN tagging are independent controls that both may affect a campus link. The requirement asks about 802.1Q native classification, not loop-free topology leadership.
Question 262
Three OSPFv2 routers start together on one broadcast Ethernet subnet and have priorities R1=1, R2=100, and R3=50, all nonzero. Assuming a fresh election and no existing DR, which router is favored to become DR?
- R2, because interface priority 100 is greatest
- R1, because lower priority is always better
- R3, because priority 50 is closest to default 1
- No DR is elected on broadcast Ethernet
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:On a fresh OSPF broadcast-network designated-router election, eligible routers are compared first by their configured interface priority, with the highest value preferred. R2 has priority 100, greater than R3's 50 and R1's 1, so it is favored to become DR under the specified simultaneous start and no-existing-DR conditions. If priorities tie, router ID breaks the tie. OSPF elections can be nonpreemptive after establishment, so the fresh-election assumption matters.
Incorrect Answers
B:Lower numerical priority is preferred in some network protocols or election contexts, but OSPF's DR election on a broadcast segment favors the highest eligible interface priority. R1's value 1 is lower than both other routers' priorities and therefore does not win this particular comparison. It may remain a DROTHER or take another role depending on outcomes. The question explicitly states all priorities are nonzero and the election is fresh, removing other exceptions.
C:OSPF does not select a designated router based on which priority is numerically closest to the default value of 1. R3's priority 50 is eligible and higher than R1's, but R2's 100 is greater still. The highest configured eligible priority wins a fresh election before router-ID tie-breaking. A network operator should evaluate the actual priority ordering rather than treating proximity to an implementation default as a ranking metric.
D:OSPF broadcast network types normally perform a DR/BDR election to reduce the amount of full adjacency exchange required among multiple routers. Point-to-point OSPF links do not use that election, but the scenario explicitly identifies one multi-router broadcast Ethernet segment. Claiming there is no DR ignores the provided network type. The only remaining selection question is which router is favored by priority, with R2's 100 winning over 50 and 1.
Question 263
A campus administrator must push coordinated channel and SSID configuration to a fleet of centrally managed access points. Which component normally performs that role?
- Enable Dynamic Trunking Protocol on every AP uplink and use its negotiation to distribute SSID passwords
- Configure DHCP relay on the distribution router to select each managed AP radio channel
- A wireless LAN controller manages controller-based access points
- Give every AP the same PoE power allocation and assume it will synchronize the WLAN configuration
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A wireless LAN controller centrally manages supported lightweight access points, coordinating SSIDs, client security policies, radio-channel behavior and other operational settings according to platform capabilities. That is the standard component for a campus fleet requiring consistent WLAN configuration. Administrators still need correct AP connectivity, policy-tag or profile assignments and controller compatibility. Centralized management reduces per-AP manual differences but does not eliminate the need to verify resulting client service and RF coverage.
Incorrect Answers
A:Dynamic Trunking Protocol negotiates whether compatible Ethernet switchports operate as trunks, not the channel plan or SSID configuration of wireless access points. An AP uplink might use particular VLAN handling, but DTP messages do not carry WLAN passphrases or radio settings. The engineer needs coordinated wireless management across a fleet, which is a controller function. Enabling trunk negotiation on every uplink could create unnecessary topology or security problems without configuring any SSID.
B:DHCP relay sends selected local client broadcasts across routed networks toward a configured DHCP server, allowing stations in remote VLANs to obtain IP leases. It has no mechanism for selecting AP radio channels, centralizing WLAN security or distributing SSID policy. DHCP may be necessary after a client associates, but address assignment is downstream of wireless configuration. The scenario asks for an AP management coordinator rather than a network addressing service.
D:Power over Ethernet allocates electrical power to access points over supported wired links, enabling their radios and Ethernet interfaces to operate. Matching PoE budgets does not communicate SSIDs, cryptographic credentials or RF channel assignments between APs. Two equally powered APs can still have completely different WLAN configurations. The requirement is synchronized management policy, so a controller or appropriate centralized WLAN management system is needed in addition to adequate power.
Question 264
On a Cisco Catalyst 9800 controller, WLAN ID 24 named Training is enabled, broadcasts its SSID, and has the required WPA2-Personal PSK and an enabled policy profile. The access points use the default policy tag, which has no mapping for this WLAN ID. Why do the APs not advertise this WLAN, and which GUI change addresses the omission?
- Change the WLAN PSK to an open network even though all clients already have the correct key
- Disable Broadcast SSID so the client can discover the WLAN name more easily
- Create a suitable policy-tag mapping from the WLAN profile to its enabled policy profile and assign that tag to the APs
- Change the access switch native VLAN to match the wireless controller management address
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:On Catalyst 9800 controllers, a policy tag maps WLAN profiles to associated policy profiles for the APs using that tag. If the default tag lacks an entry for WLAN ID 24, those APs do not serve that WLAN even though its profile and security are enabled. Add the correct WLAN-to-enabled-policy mapping to an appropriate policy tag and assign that tag to the intended APs. Verify tag deployment, WLAN state and site-specific policy afterwards.
Incorrect Answers
A:WPA2-Personal key configuration determines how authorized clients authenticate and derive protection for their wireless traffic. The question says the Training WLAN already has the required PSK and is administratively enabled, so removing that security would not fix missing SSID advertisement caused by policy-tag mapping. An open network would weaken access protection and still might not be attached to the APs. Keep the intended keying and correct the controller's WLAN-to-policy association.
B:Broadcast SSID controls whether ordinary beacon information advertises a WLAN name for discovery. Disabling that setting cannot make an already-enabled and broadcast-configured WLAN easier for clients to find, and it does not assign a WLAN to an AP policy tag. The root issue is that the APs' current tag has no mapping for WLAN ID 24. Wireless name advertisement and AP policy assignment are separate controls; fix the missing assignment.
D:The access switch's native VLAN classifies untagged frames on an 802.1Q trunk and may affect AP management connectivity if configured incorrectly. But the scenario already identifies an explicit missing Catalyst 9800 policy-tag mapping, which is sufficient to explain why WLAN ID 24 is not advertised. Changing the native VLAN to match a management IP address is also conceptually wrong: an IP address is not a VLAN identifier. Correct the controller's AP policy mapping first.
Question 265
Which TWO statements distinguish Ansible and Terraform capabilities in an operations workflow? Choose TWO.
- Terraform must always replace every existing switch during a plan
- Ansible is often used to execute ordered configuration tasks on existing network devices
- Ansible requires a custom resident agent on every IOS interface
- Terraform cannot express desired resource state in configuration files
- Terraform can reconcile provider-managed infrastructure resources using a plan/apply workflow
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Ansible commonly runs ordered playbook tasks against existing network devices through supported transports such as SSH or network APIs. It can apply interface configuration, check state and collect facts without creating a new switch every time. Idempotent modules and reviewed inventories support repeatability, although module behavior should be tested. This execution-oriented workflow is a fair distinction from Terraform's declarative plan-and-apply model for managing provider-backed resources.
E:Terraform compares declarative desired resources against recorded and provider-observed state, proposes a plan and applies supported changes through provider APIs. That fits infrastructure reconciliation, including cloud network objects where suitable providers exist. Engineers should review destructive operations, secure state storage and account permissions before apply. The tool complements rather than universally replaces Ansible, which often runs configuration tasks on existing routers and switches. Their strengths can coexist within one controlled operations workflow.
Incorrect Answers
A:A Terraform plan can propose changes to infrastructure resources according to its declarative configuration and current state; it does not inherently replace every existing switch or cloud object. Most plans can include no-op, create, update or destroy actions depending on resources and provider behavior. A reviewed plan helps detect unintended replacements before apply. The word 'always' makes this option inaccurate because safe reconciliation often leaves already-compliant resources unchanged.
C:Ansible is frequently agentless for network automation, connecting over SSH or supported platform APIs rather than requiring a permanently resident custom agent on every IOS interface. Devices still need access credentials and compatible network modules or collections. Treating agents as mandatory at each physical switchport misrepresents the architecture. The question asks for ordinary workflow capabilities, and Ansible's task execution against existing devices is more relevant than an invented per-port software agent.
D:Terraform is specifically designed to express desired infrastructure resources declaratively in configuration files and reconcile them through providers. Claiming it cannot express desired state contradicts the tool's core use. A provider may manage cloud networks, policies or other supported resources depending on API capabilities. The exact effect is visible in its plan output. Terraform configuration is not merely an imperative script of per-device CLI commands, which is the distinction being tested.
Question 266
During an emergency recovery on an isolated lab LAN, a network router fetches a firmware file with a protocol initiated through UDP 69. Which service is most likely used?
- TFTP
- FTP
- HTTPS
- SNMP
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Trivial File Transfer Protocol normally uses UDP port 69 to initiate a file-transfer request, then uses negotiated transfer identifiers for the subsequent data exchange. It is simple and may be available for recovery or bootstrapping on isolated network equipment, but has no built-in encryption or strong user authentication. The scenario specifically names a firmware fetch initiated through UDP 69 on a controlled lab LAN. Those details identify TFTP rather than FTP or HTTPS.
Incorrect Answers
B:Ordinary FTP uses a TCP control connection, conventionally to port 21, and can establish separate TCP data connections. It is not initiated through UDP port 69. FTP may also transfer firmware or device backups in certain environments, but the transport/port clue in the question identifies a different service. Its original protocol lacks automatic encryption too, so the distinction here is the wire protocol rather than just whether the network is isolated.
C:HTTPS uses HTTP over TLS and ordinarily connects to TCP port 443 for protected web transactions, or another explicitly configured service endpoint. An HTTPS firmware download can be appropriate where a device supports verified certificates and the vendor's update process. It does not normally begin as a TFTP-style UDP 69 request. The problem states the recovery protocol's initial transport and port, making that the decisive identification rather than generic ability to carry a file.
D:SNMP uses management messages to query device counters and configuration objects and can send notifications; ordinary manager-agent queries commonly involve UDP port 161. It is not the standard firmware file retrieval service initiated at UDP 69. Some management systems can orchestrate firmware upgrades using separate mechanisms, but the underlying file transfer still has its own protocol. The stated request pattern matches TFTP instead of SNMP operations.
Question 267
A router displays O 10.90.0.0/16 [110/21] via 172.16.4.2, 00:01:18, GigabitEthernet0/0. Which TWO fields directly identify the next-hop router and the local egress interface for this route? Choose TWO.
172.16.4.2 is the IPv4 next-hop address used for forwarding110 is the outgoing interface number because it precedes the slashGigabitEthernet0/0 is the local outgoing interface00:01:18 is the destination neighbor IPv4 address21 is the interface identifier derived from the OSPF cost
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:The address after via in the Cisco IOS route output identifies the next-hop IPv4 router or gateway for the destination prefix. Here 172.16.4.2 is the neighbor toward which the local router forwards matching packets. The value is different from the 10.90.0.0/16 destination and from the bracketed OSPF distance/metric. Next-hop resolution must still succeed through the local interface before forwarding can occur.
C:The final GigabitEthernet0/0 field names the local exit interface selected for forwarding traffic toward the OSPF next hop. In this entry, packets for 10.90.0.0/16 are sent toward neighbor 172.16.4.2 using that egress, subject to route resolution and link state. The text is an IOS interface identifier rather than a remote IP address. It supplies the second required field alongside the address shown after via.
Incorrect Answers
B:The number 110 is the administrative distance in [110/21], used to compare OSPF route-source preference with competing sources for the same prefix. It is not a physical interface number or port identifier. The outgoing interface is explicitly printed at the end of the route line, after the route age. Confusing these fields would lead an operator to troubleshoot a nonexistent interface instead of correctly reading the next-hop and egress information.
D:The 00:01:18 segment represents elapsed route age or update timing in the IOS table, not a dotted-decimal IPv4 address. The syntax has three colon-separated fields and is placed between the next-hop address and egress interface. It helps assess how recently the route was learned or refreshed but cannot identify a forwarding neighbor. The next hop appears separately after via as 172.16.4.2, which uses normal IPv4 notation.
E:The 21 value is the OSPF metric after the slash inside [110/21], representing protocol-specific path cost for the learned destination. It is not the local Ethernet interface number, which appears explicitly by name as GigabitEthernet0/0. A route's metric can change without its physical port identifier changing. The question asks for next-hop identity and egress interface, so the bracketed cost is not one of the requested fields.
Question 268
An LACP Port-channel contains two active member links and has no configured minimum-link requirement. One cable is unplugged, leaving the other member healthy. What is the expected general result?
- Both physical members are automatically shut down until a technician resets the bundle
- The logical Port-channel may continue forwarding over the remaining healthy member
- The switch moves all affected traffic into VLAN 1 regardless of channel configuration
- LACP converts the logical bundle into a new static IPv4 route
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:With two healthy LACP members and no minimum-link threshold, loss of one cable normally removes that member while the Port-channel may remain operational over the surviving link. Available aggregate bandwidth decreases, and traffic hashing can shift flows to the active member. Platform-specific settings, neighbor consistency and application sessions still affect observed behavior. The key point is that a link aggregation group can provide resilience instead of requiring the whole logical interface to fail when one member disappears.
Incorrect Answers
A:LACP monitors member links and can remove a failed member from an EtherChannel while keeping other valid members in the logical bundle. It does not necessarily shut down every physical interface when one cable is unplugged, particularly when no minimum-links restriction is configured. Aggregate capacity falls and some flows may be rehashed, but the remaining healthy link can still carry traffic. A total shutdown would ignore the redundancy that the channel is intended to provide.
C:EtherChannel member failure does not automatically move all traffic into VLAN 1. The Port-channel retains its configured Layer 2 or Layer 3 role and VLAN properties, subject to supported operational state. VLAN 1 is not a universal rescue path for unrelated traffic, and silently migrating all VLANs would undermine segmentation. The expected response is member removal and possible capacity reduction, not an arbitrary change in client VLAN assignment.
D:LACP negotiates and maintains Ethernet link-aggregation membership; it does not modify the routing table by generating a new static IPv4 route when a member fails. The logical Port-channel interface may already participate in routing or switching, but the aggregation protocol itself is separate from route-source installation. A healthy surviving link can keep that logical interface usable. No spontaneous conversion to static routing follows from loss of one physical channel member.
Question 269
A team allocates one ordinary /27 IPv4 subnet to a segment. With conventional network and broadcast reservations, how many usable host addresses does it provide?
- 14 usable IPv4 host addresses for a /28
- 6 usable IPv4 host addresses for a /29
- 62 usable IPv4 host addresses for a /26
- 30 usable IPv4 host addresses for a /27
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:An IPv4 /27 prefix reserves 27 network bits and leaves five host bits, giving 2^5 or 32 total addresses. Under the conventional subnet model, the first identifies the network and the last is directed broadcast, leaving 30 ordinary usable hosts. This is the capacity of the stated one-subnet segment. Exceptions such as /31 point-to-point behavior do not apply because the stem expressly asks for conventional /27 host allocation.
Incorrect Answers
A:A /28 subnet has four host bits, producing 16 total IPv4 addresses and ordinarily 14 assignable host values after network and broadcast reservations. The question explicitly asks for /27 capacity, which is a different 32-address block size. Although both calculations use the same conventional reservation model, selecting the /28 count would underestimate available hosts. Determine the five host bits in /27 rather than assuming every small subnet supports 14 endpoints.
B:A /29 IPv4 subnet provides eight total addresses and six conventional usable host addresses. It is useful for small segments but much smaller than the specified /27. The host-capacity formula depends on the number of remaining host bits: three for /29 versus five for /27. The problem's precise prefix length controls the calculation, so the /29 value is not an answer to the /27 question.
C:A /26 subnet contains 64 total addresses and normally permits 62 conventional host addresses, because it has six host bits. That is twice the total address space of a /27 and would fit a larger segment. The presence of a plausible larger-host count in the choices is not evidence that the subnet changed. The current allocation is explicitly /27, leaving five rather than six host bits to count.
Question 270
A port-security review finds a switch interface carrying uncontrolled lab equipment into a production VLAN. The team isolates the port while it confirms an approved device inventory. What is this containment step?
- A mitigation that reduces the attack surface
- An example of data exfiltration
- The source of a known root bridge election
- A transport-layer retransmission mechanism
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Temporarily isolating an uncontrolled equipment port reduces the number of paths through which unapproved devices can reach the production VLAN. That is a mitigation or containment measure because it lowers exposure while the team checks the authorized asset inventory. It does not automatically eliminate all existing vulnerabilities or prove that an attacker was present. Restore connectivity only after validating endpoint identity, VLAN placement and approved operational requirements under the organization's change process.
Incorrect Answers
B:Data exfiltration means unauthorized disclosure or transfer of sensitive information out of a protected environment. Disconnecting a suspicious lab port is a defensive action intended to prevent possible misuse, not evidence that data was sent elsewhere. The team has not observed an outbound transfer in the question. A security investigation may later check for exfiltration, but the described immediate control is isolation that reduces the potential attack surface.
C:Spanning-tree root selection depends on bridge priorities, MAC identifiers and protocol BPDUs in an applicable Layer 2 topology. Isolating an unauthorized lab endpoint is not itself a description of a root bridge election, even if disabling a port could incidentally affect topology. The scenario's purpose is to contain an unapproved production VLAN attachment during inventory review. Labeling that as a root election misses the access-security objective.
D:Transport-layer retransmission allows protocols such as TCP to recover missing segments when appropriate acknowledgments and sequence numbers are used. A switchport isolation action changes network access rather than retransmitting application data. The incident concerns uncontrolled equipment connected to a production VLAN and the team's deliberate risk reduction. Although isolated traffic may be lost, packet retransmission behavior is a separate consequence and not the security-control category being asked about.