Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 26
Question 250
A network manager considers TACACS+ for command-level device-administrator authorization. Which statement accurately distinguishes it from basic local-only login?
- TACACS+ is a Layer 2 protocol used to select an STP root
- TACACS+ must be used for every DHCP client address lease
- TACACS+ replaces the need for user identity checks
- TACACS+ can support centralized command authorization and accounting for device administration
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:TACACS+ can support centralized authentication, fine-grained command authorization and accounting for supported network-device administrative sessions. A router can consult the AAA service to decide whether a named engineer may issue sensitive commands and record the action centrally. Local-only accounts can be appropriate for emergency fallback, but do not inherently provide the same centralized policy control. Configure secure server reachability, protected credentials and resilient access before depending on the service.
Incorrect Answers
A:STP uses bridge priorities, identifiers and BPDUs to elect root bridges and select loop-free Layer 2 forwarding paths. TACACS+ is not that protocol and cannot replace spanning-tree topology control. Its intended role is central administrative AAA for network infrastructure. The question asks about authorization of specific management commands, which involves identifying a user and enforcing policy rather than selecting which Ethernet switch is the STP root.
B:DHCP is used for client addressing and lease lifecycle operations; TACACS+ does not have to participate in every DHCP transaction and normally is not deployed as its address-assignment authority. Network administrators may use TACACS+ to authenticate when configuring DHCP servers on routers, but that is a separate management activity. The requested distinction concerns CLI command authorization and accounting, not how an endpoint obtains its IPv4 address.
C:A centralized TACACS+ deployment relies on identifying and authenticating administrators before its authorization rules can be meaningfully applied. It does not remove the need to verify user identity, nor does it automatically grant every command. An operator's identity is the basis for selecting command privileges and producing attributable audit records. The correct benefit over local-only login is centralized, policy-based management access rather than bypassing authentication checks.
Question 251
A route printed as S 198.18.20.0/24 [1/0] via 10.2.2.1 is followed by O 198.18.30.0/24 [110/11] via 10.2.2.2. Which TWO source-code interpretations are correct? Choose TWO.
- The S entry represents an installed EIGRP-learned route
- The route to 198.18.20.0/24 is statically configured
- The O entry is a directly connected local route to 198.18.30.0/24
- The two entries must have equal administrative distances because both use /24 masks
- The route to 198.18.30.0/24 is OSPF-learned
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:The code S identifies a route configured statically rather than learned from an interior gateway protocol. Therefore 198.18.20.0/24 is an installed static destination with next hop 10.2.2.1, and the bracket [1/0] shows its administrative distance and listed metric. A static entry can coexist with unrelated learned routes to other prefixes. The operator should not infer route-source identity from the address range or mask alone.
E:The O code identifies an OSPF-learned destination in the Cisco IOS routing table. Thus 198.18.30.0/24 was installed from OSPF information, with default administrative distance 110 and displayed path metric 11 in the bracket. Its next hop 10.2.2.2 is separate from the other route's static next hop. The two source-code interpretations are independent: S denotes static and O denotes OSPF.
Incorrect Answers
A:IOS normally uses S to mark a static route, whereas EIGRP routes typically have D-related codes. The S entry in the question is for 198.18.20.0/24 and shows administrative distance 1, consistent with a normal static route. It should not be relabeled EIGRP merely because it contains a via next hop. Source codes explain how the router obtained a route, while the destination prefix controls where that route applies.
C:A directly connected IPv4 network normally appears with the C route code in IOS, and a locally owned interface host address can appear with L. The second route instead begins with O and points to a next hop, identifying OSPF-learned reachability. It is not the local connected subnet merely because its prefix length is /24. A router may reach the listed next hop through a connected interface, but that does not make the remote destination itself connected.
D:Administrative distance is tied to the route source and configured preference, not the destination subnet mask. Both entries use /24 masks, but the static entry shows distance 1 and the OSPF entry shows 110. Different source preferences are normal even when prefixes have equal length. Moreover, the routes serve different destination networks, so there is no direct competition between them. The key task is interpreting each source letter accurately.
Question 252
An organization operates cloud-managed switches whose configuration is provisioned through the vendor’s authenticated management service. Which TWO statements correctly describe this management architecture? Choose TWO.
- Authorized administrators can manage multiple sites through a cloud-hosted management portal
- An administrator must reach every device exclusively through direct on-site serial console access
- Cloud management makes device authentication and access control unnecessary
- The managed switches automatically use Telnet to publish every admin password in plaintext
- Devices need appropriate permitted network connectivity to reach the cloud management plane
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Cloud-hosted network management can provide an authenticated portal where authorized operators monitor and configure switches across multiple sites, subject to tenant access rules and the vendor's supported capabilities. This reduces the need for separate on-site CLI sessions for each device, although local access may still be required for recovery. Central dashboards can aid inventory, configuration consistency and alerts. The service is a management-plane feature, not a guarantee of automatic configuration correctness.
E:To maintain a cloud management relationship, managed switches need network reachability to the appropriate vendor service endpoints over permitted transport and DNS or other discovery infrastructure. Firewalls, proxies and site WAN policies must allow the specific documented management traffic. Loss of cloud connectivity may affect new changes and monitoring, while some locally installed forwarding state can continue depending on platform design. The requirement for a working, authorized management path is a normal dependency of the architecture.
Incorrect Answers
B:Direct serial console access remains useful for local recovery when network management fails, but cloud-managed switches are specifically designed to accept management through an authenticated remote service. Requiring every administrator to be physically at every site would negate the remote-management benefit described. A device still needs appropriate connectivity and registration to the vendor's service; local console may supplement that path. The word 'exclusively' makes this claim inaccurate.
C:Cloud centralization does not eliminate the need for administrator identity verification, least-privilege roles or audit records. A compromised cloud portal may provide broad control over many sites, making secure authentication and access policy especially important. Devices also need to trust the intended vendor service and avoid unauthorized enrollment. The architecture changes where management runs but does not repeal the security requirements associated with privileged network configuration.
D:Cloud-managed devices ordinarily use vendor-supported protected communication channels to their management service, not an automatic policy of publishing every administrator password through plaintext Telnet. The exact protocol varies by product, but protecting credentials and management traffic is a fundamental requirement. This option describes an insecure and implausible behavior rather than a defining feature of cloud management. Operators should verify TLS or other secure transport and identity controls instead of assuming data exposure is inherent.
Question 253
A virtualization host must attach several VM virtual NICs to a common tagged Ethernet uplink while enforcing port connections in software. What component is involved?
- Use VRF instances alone to switch VM Ethernet frames to a shared physical trunk
- Use the hypervisor CPU scheduler as a replacement for virtual Ethernet ports and bridges
- A virtual switch connects virtual NICs to virtual and physical networks
- Use only host firewall policies to attach virtual NICs to the physical Ethernet network
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A virtual switch inside the host connects guest virtual NICs to software-defined Ethernet ports and, when configured, to a physical uplink carrying selected VLANs. It can enforce port group and VLAN policies and forward appropriate frames between virtual and physical network segments. The hypervisor still manages compute resources separately. The requirement concerns network attachment for several VMs on one tagged uplink, which is exactly a virtual switch's role.
Incorrect Answers
A:VRF instances separate Layer 3 routing contexts and can give tenants independent forwarding tables, but they do not themselves emulate Ethernet switchports for virtual machine NICs. A virtualized host needs a mechanism to connect virtual Ethernet frames from guest interfaces to each other or to a physical uplink. VRFs may complement network isolation at a higher layer, but cannot replace the host's virtual switch when attaching several guest NICs to a tagged Ethernet network.
B:A hypervisor CPU scheduler distributes processor execution time among guest workloads and host tasks. It does not provide Layer 2 forwarding, virtual Ethernet port membership or VLAN tagging for guest NICs. Those networking operations require virtual switching or comparable host network mechanisms. The scenario describes connecting multiple VM adapters to a shared physical network path, not assigning CPU cycles. Confusing scheduling with switching would leave the virtual network unattached.
D:Host firewall policies can filter traffic and constrain which packets a VM or process is allowed to send or receive. They do not by themselves instantiate the virtual Ethernet ports, bridges or trunk mappings needed to attach a guest NIC to a physical uplink. Security controls are often layered on top of a virtual switch or equivalent host networking component. The scenario first needs connectivity and VLAN attachment; filtering alone cannot create that forwarding structure.
Question 254
R1 has an installed route for 10.20.0.0/16 via R2 and a different installed route for 10.30.0.0/16 via R3. A packet arrives with source 10.30.5.7 and destination 10.20.8.9. No policy-based routing is configured. Which TWO statements correctly describe the default forwarding decision? Choose TWO.
- The route for 10.20.0.0/16 is selected because the packet destination belongs to that prefix
- The router selects the 10.30.0.0/16 route because the packet source belongs to that network
- The packet is duplicated to R2 and R3 because it has one source and one destination IPv4 address
- The source address alone does not cause R1 to select the 10.30.0.0/16 path in ordinary destination-based forwarding
- The router requires both installed networks to have equal administrative distance before it can forward either packet
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Ordinary destination-based routing uses the packet's destination IP to find the longest installed matching prefix. Destination 10.20.8.9 belongs to 10.20.0.0/16, so that route via R2 is the appropriate entry. The packet source 10.30.5.7 does not change this decision in the absence of policy routing. Normal forwarding may still be limited by ACLs or reachability, but the route-selection basis is the named destination prefix.
D:Without policy-based routing or another explicit exception, the source prefix alone does not cause a router to prefer the 10.30.0.0/16 path via R3. Destination 10.20.8.9 matches the 10.20.0.0/16 entry, which determines egress toward R2. This is why route selection and source-address filtering must be distinguished in troubleshooting. A source can influence specialized policies, but that behavior is expressly excluded in the question.
Incorrect Answers
B:The source address 10.30.5.7 belongs to the separately installed 10.30.0.0/16 route, but normal IOS route lookup does not select egress based solely on the packet's source prefix. The source may matter to security policy or specialized policy-based routing, neither of which is configured here. The packet is intended for 10.20.8.9, and the destination route through R2 controls ordinary forwarding. Selecting R3 from the source would misapply the routing table.
C:A conventional unicast IPv4 packet has one destination address and is forwarded according to a selected route, not duplicated onto both source-matching and destination-matching paths. Equal-cost multipath may use multiple eligible routes to the same destination prefix when configured, but these two entries cover different networks. There is no basis for copying the packet to both R2 and R3. The source field's presence does not create a second independent forwarding instruction.
E:Administrative distance compares competing sources offering the same destination prefix; it does not require every distinct route in a table to share one distance. The route to 10.20.0.0/16 can be used independently of how 10.30.0.0/16 was learned or its preference. Since the destinations are different, their administrative distances are not compared to decide this packet's egress. The question focuses on destination matching, not uniform protocol trust metrics.
Question 255
An API documentation page states that PUT /policies/7 replaces the complete representation of policy 7. What risk arises if a client sends only one field using PUT?
- The HTTP client automatically switches from TCP to UDP 69
- The request is always interpreted as a safe read
- The server must append the field without changing other data
- Omitted fields may be reset or removed under the full-replacement contract
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:If API documentation defines PUT as replacing the complete policy representation, sending only one description field may reset, remove or default properties that were not included. That can unintentionally change ACLs, VLAN policy or other network behavior even when the engineer wanted a cosmetic edit. Retrieve the current representation, follow concurrency controls and send a complete valid payload, or use PATCH where documented. The dangerous distinction is full replacement versus partial update.
Incorrect Answers
A:An HTTP PUT request to an API generally uses the underlying HTTP transport supported by the controller endpoint, commonly TLS-protected TCP-based HTTPS, or other HTTP transport where specified. It does not automatically switch the client to TFTP on UDP port 69 merely because a body contains fewer fields. TFTP is a distinct file-transfer protocol. The real risk is at the application resource-representation level: omitted policy fields may be overwritten by the server's replacement semantics.
B:PUT is a state-changing HTTP method conventionally used to create or replace a resource at a known URI. It is not equivalent to GET or HEAD, which are intended for read-only retrieval or metadata. Treating PUT as harmless could lead an operator to submit an incomplete payload without understanding its effect. The documentation explicitly says full replacement, so the safe action is to provide the complete intended representation or use a supported partial-update method.
C:A full-replacement PUT contract does not promise to append only the fields provided while preserving every omitted property. That behavior is closer to certain PATCH semantics and still depends on the API's documented implementation. If the client sends only a description, the server may interpret other fields as absent, defaults or removals. Assuming automatic merge behavior ignores the endpoint's explicit replacement contract and can corrupt a network policy.
Question 256
SSH connects to a network device and protects management commands in transit. What transport-layer port is the default SSH server endpoint?
- UDP 161
- TCP 22
- TCP 23
- UDP 69
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:SSH ordinarily listens on TCP destination port 22 and provides an encrypted authenticated channel suitable for remote network-device management. The administrator's client connects to the device's SSH server on that port unless a nondefault port is explicitly configured. Authentication, authorized VTY access and cryptographic host-key validation remain necessary for secure operation. Port 22 identifies the service endpoint, not a guarantee that the user has privilege to run every IOS command.
Incorrect Answers
A:UDP port 161 is commonly used by SNMP agents for management queries, not by an SSH server for interactive encrypted terminal access. An operator could monitor a switch through SNMP while administering it through SSH, but those services have different transport semantics. The requirement asks for the default endpoint of the SSH command channel. A UDP SNMP destination would not accept a conventional SSH session or provide encrypted CLI control.
C:TCP port 23 is the conventional Telnet terminal service, which normally lacks SSH's encrypted transport and exposes session data to interception. Although both Telnet and SSH can present an interactive CLI, their security properties and destination ports differ. The user explicitly describes SSH-protected commands, so selecting the Telnet port would reach the wrong protocol. Disable unprotected remote login where practical and use SSH with appropriate access controls.
D:UDP port 69 belongs to TFTP, a simple file-transfer protocol sometimes used in controlled provisioning or recovery environments. It does not provide an encrypted interactive SSH management session. A device could offer TFTP and SSH independently, but a TFTP listener would not process SSH key exchange or terminal authentication. The question asks for the SSH server's ordinary transport-layer endpoint, making TCP 22 the proper pairing.
Question 257
A small business can administer one approved Wi-Fi passphrase rather than individual user accounts and requires WPA2 link encryption. What configuration category is appropriate?
- WPA3-Enterprise with certificate-only EAP-TLS is mandatory for every PSK WLAN
- A WLAN configured with no authentication and no encryption
- An SSID using a legacy WEP shared key
- WPA2-Personal with a strong pre-shared key and AES-CCMP
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:WPA2-Personal uses a shared passphrase or pre-shared key for authorized stations and can protect the WLAN with AES-CCMP when compatible access points and clients are configured appropriately. That matches the small business's simple one-passphrase model and its explicit WPA2 link-encryption requirement. Manage the secret carefully and change it when users leave, since one shared key offers weaker per-person revocation than Enterprise authentication. Avoid obsolete TKIP and WEP configurations.
Incorrect Answers
A:WPA3-Enterprise with certificate-based EAP-TLS can offer strong per-user authentication in suitable managed deployments, but it is not mandatory for every wireless network that intentionally uses a shared personal passphrase. The business specifically wants WPA2 link encryption and can manage one authorized PSK. An enterprise identity infrastructure would exceed the stated simple requirement. Modern upgrades may be desirable later, but choosing a different security architecture is not needed to meet this question's conditions.
B:An open WLAN without authentication or link-layer encryption would not satisfy the request for WPA2-protected wireless traffic. It can be appropriate for deliberately public guest networks combined with additional controls, but it provides different security properties. The scenario asks for one approved passphrase and AES-based link encryption, both of which are absent in the proposed open configuration. Choosing it would reduce rather than meet the required protection.
C:WEP is a deprecated wireless security mechanism with well-known weaknesses and unsuitable key protection for contemporary corporate or small-office networks. A legacy WEP shared key is not equivalent to WPA2-Personal using AES-CCMP. Even if devices supported WEP for backward compatibility, it would fail the explicit WPA2 encryption requirement and introduce avoidable compromise risk. Configure the supported personal mode with a strong PSK and modern cipher suite instead.
Question 258
SVI Vlan40 on a Layer 3 switch is administratively enabled and has address 192.0.2.1/24, but line protocol stays down. No physical switch port is active in VLAN 40. What most directly explains the SVI state?
- The switch must have OSPF enabled first
- There is no operational Layer 2 member or eligible trunk forwarding VLAN 40
- The SVI requires a MAC address typed manually
- All access ports must be configured as trunks
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:On common Catalyst platforms, SVI line protocol may remain down when its VLAN has no active eligible Layer 2 access member or trunk forwarding that VLAN. The configured address 192.0.2.1/24 and no shutdown alone do not guarantee operational status. Bring up an appropriate VLAN 40 port or permit the VLAN on an operational trunk, subject to spanning-tree and platform behavior. Once the SVI is up, the connected route can be available for routing.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF can advertise routed subnets and establish router adjacencies, but it does not cause a Layer 3 switch's VLAN interface to transition up when there is no active Layer 2 port for that VLAN. An SVI's operational state is related to its administrative status and the VLAN's eligible forwarding attachment under platform autostate rules. The issue occurs before dynamic route advertisement. Check VLAN membership and physical link state rather than starting OSPF as a purported prerequisite.
C:Switch virtual interfaces normally derive their link-layer identity through the platform and do not require an administrator to type an arbitrary MAC address before the VLAN interface can become operational. The missing condition here is an active forwarding member of VLAN 40, not the SVI's Ethernet identity. Manual MAC configuration is a different and often unsupported or unnecessary operation. Inspect show vlan, show interfaces status and trunk state for the actual autostate dependency.
D:Access switchports can provide active membership in VLAN 40 without being configured as trunks; trunks are needed only where multiple VLANs must traverse a shared link. Forcing every port to trunk mode would be inappropriate for user devices and could weaken segmentation. The SVI needs some qualifying operational Layer 2 presence for its VLAN, not universal trunking. One active access member or suitable active trunk may satisfy that condition under the platform's SVI state rules.
Question 259
A host has been disconnected for several hours and its dynamically learned MAC remains unreachable. What mechanism eventually clears the stale location?
- MAC address-table aging removes inactive dynamic learning entries
- The disconnected host’s DHCP lease must expire before the switch is allowed to remove its MAC entry
- The workstation clears its ARP cache and remotely deletes the switch’s dynamic forwarding entry
- The access VLAN membership expires automatically after every idle hour
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Ethernet switches record dynamically learned source MAC addresses against VLANs and ingress interfaces, then age entries out if no traffic refreshes them for the configured interval. When the host remains disconnected, the entry eventually disappears, preventing stale forwarding to the old port. A new frame from that host can later relearn its actual location. The aging mechanism is local to switch forwarding state and does not require DHCP or an ARP action from the disconnected endpoint.
Incorrect Answers
B:A DHCP lease defines how long an IPv4 client may use assigned address parameters, not how long a switch must retain the client's dynamically learned Ethernet MAC location. A host with a static IP can still have its MAC entry aged out; a DHCP lease could also remain valid after physical disconnection. The two timers track different state. The switch's own MAC aging interval controls removal of inactive dynamic forwarding entries.
C:A workstation's ARP cache maps IPv4 neighbor addresses to MAC values; the switch's forwarding table independently maps learned Ethernet source MACs to switchports. A disconnected host cannot normally send a remote command to delete a stale switch entry by flushing its local ARP table. Dynamic MAC learning state is aged or explicitly cleared by the switch. The scenario asks for the normal automatic cleanup mechanism after inactivity.
D:VLAN membership is an administrative interface and broadcast-domain setting that does not automatically expire after a host stops transmitting. A switchport can remain assigned to VLAN 30 even when no endpoints are connected or their MAC entries have aged out. Removing a learned MAC location is different from deleting VLAN membership. The question concerns stale dynamic forwarding entries, so MAC table aging is the relevant timed behavior rather than a periodic VLAN reassignment.
Question 260
A team proposes an interface-only IPv4 static route to an off-link /24 on an Ethernet multiaccess segment. What operational concern makes a reachable next-hop IP preferable?
- The router may issue ARP for remote destination IPs instead of a single known neighbor
- Ethernet links are point-to-point by definition, so interface-only routes cannot be accepted
- A next-hop IP disables IPv4 routing automatically
- A next-hop IP converts the static route to an OSPF route
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:On an Ethernet multiaccess segment, an interface-only static route to a remote network can lead the router to treat remote destination addresses as if they were directly reachable on that LAN. It may generate ARP requests for many individual destinations rather than resolving one specified gateway, creating unnecessary traffic and ambiguous delivery. Naming the reachable next-hop IP makes the intended neighbor explicit. On a true point-to-point link, exit-interface-only routing has different operational implications.
Incorrect Answers
B:Ethernet is a multiaccess technology by design, even when a particular physical cable happens to connect only two devices. Cisco IOS may accept interface-only static routes on Ethernet, but their address-resolution behavior can be undesirable for remote destination prefixes. The issue is not blanket syntax prohibition. A point-to-point serial link has a more unambiguous single neighbor, whereas Ethernet ARP behavior makes an explicit next-hop IP preferable in the described case.
C:Specifying a next-hop IPv4 address in a static route guides recursive resolution and egress selection; it does not disable IP routing on the router. A reachable gateway is a normal forwarding prerequisite and can simplify ARP behavior on multiaccess links. The concern described is routing efficiency and unambiguous neighbor resolution, not loss of routing capability. Appropriate interface and global IP configuration remain operational with a next-hop static route.
D:Adding a next-hop IP does not transform a manually configured static route into an OSPF-learned route. IOS still labels it with the static route code and applies its configured administrative distance. OSPF route learning requires the OSPF process and appropriate neighbor and advertisement state. The choice of next-hop syntax affects route resolution, not the source protocol. The question is specifically about avoiding broad ARP behavior on an Ethernet multiaccess segment.