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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 25

Question 240

R1 has a summary discard route ip route 10.77.0.0 255.255.0.0 Null0 and a more-specific valid route 10.77.4.0/24 through R2. Under default destination-based forwarding, what happens to a packet destined for 10.77.9.5?

  1. It matches the /16 Null0 summary and is discarded because no longer matching route exists
  2. It follows the /24 route to R2 even though 10.77.9.5 is outside the /24 subnet
  3. It is sent to whichever interface has the numerically smallest IPv4 address
  4. It is duplicated onto both the Null0 and R2 paths to avoid blackholing

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The packet destination 10.77.9.5 belongs to the summary 10.77.0.0/16 but not the installed 10.77.4.0/24 specific subnet. Since the only matching route in the scenario is the /16 static pointing to Null0, ordinary destination forwarding sends the packet to the discard interface. This can be intentional aggregate protection against loops or traffic for unused space. Valid destinations inside 10.77.4.0/24 would instead use their longer /24 route via R2.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The more-specific 10.77.4.0/24 route covers addresses 10.77.4.0 through 10.77.4.255 and does not include 10.77.9.5. A router cannot choose that route merely because it has a longer mask; the destination must first match the prefix. The /16 summary does match the packet and therefore remains the selected route. If a 10.77.9.0/24 route were installed separately, that could change the outcome.

C:

Router egress selection follows the installed destination routes and their resolved next hops, not numerical ordering of interface IPv4 addresses. A physical port with a small address has no special preference for an unrelated destination. The packet matches the aggregate /16 Null0 route and no longer prefix, so there is a deliberate discard decision. Choosing the smallest interface IP would ignore both the summary policy and normal longest-prefix forwarding rules.

D:

Ordinary IOS unicast forwarding does not duplicate a packet onto both a discard route and a different nonmatching next-hop route as a hedge against loss. Equal-cost multipath may use multiple eligible routes to the same prefix under appropriate conditions, but that is not the case here. Null0 is deliberately selected as the match for unused aggregate space, while the R2 route covers another /24. The packet is discarded rather than copied to both paths.

Question 241

Rapid PVST+ uses which THREE fundamental port states for participating RSTP ports, rather than classic 802.1D’s separate listening and blocking labels? Choose THREE.

  1. Discarding
  2. Listening
  3. Learning
  4. Blocking, retained as a separate classic 802.1D state
  5. Forwarding
  6. Routing

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol uses a discarding state for ports that must not forward user data in the current topology, including ports in several nonforwarding roles. This consolidates classic blocking and listening behavior into one conceptual state. A discarding port may still process the control information needed for loop avoidance. It is one of the three fundamental RSTP states, along with learning and forwarding, so the choice directly reflects the updated state model.

C:

Learning is a fundamental RSTP state in which a port can record source MAC addresses but is not yet forwarding ordinary user frames as an active forwarding path. It supports orderly topology transition by preparing the forwarding table before full service. Learning remains distinct from discarding and forwarding in the Rapid PVST+ state model. The question asks for the three primary states, so learning must be selected alongside those two other formal RSTP categories.

E:

Forwarding is the RSTP state in which a port is permitted to transmit ordinary user traffic according to the selected loop-free topology. Designated and root ports commonly reach this state under normal healthy conditions, while other roles may remain discarding. It is distinct from learning, where MAC addresses can be learned without carrying user frames. Together with discarding and learning, forwarding completes the Rapid PVST+ three-state list.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Listening is a distinct state in classic 802.1D spanning tree, during which a switch processes control information before learning addresses or forwarding user traffic. RSTP's simplified state model instead groups that nonforwarding behavior under discarding. The question explicitly asks for RSTP states rather than legacy 802.1D names. Although operators may use familiar terms in conversation, listening is not a separate one of the three formal RSTP states requested.

D:

Classic 802.1D spanning tree has a separately named blocking state, but RSTP consolidates blocking and listening functionality into its broader discarding state. Choosing blocking as an additional fourth RSTP state would mix the old terminology with the new three-state scheme. Ports in alternate or backup roles may be discarding without forwarding, yet their role does not create a separate formal state named blocking in the requested model.

F:

Routing is a Layer 3 forwarding function involving destination IP prefixes and next-hop selection, not an RSTP port state. A multilayer switch can perform routing while its Layer 2 ports participate in spanning tree, but the two mechanisms have different state models. RSTP distinguishes discarding, learning and forwarding for Layer 2 port behavior. Treating routing as an RSTP state would confuse IP transit with Ethernet loop prevention.

Question 242

R1 has a reachable point-to-point interface Serial0/0/0 leading only to R2, and it needs to route IPv4 network 172.16.44.0/24 over that link. Which configuration method is suitable for such a point-to-point connection?

  1. ip route 172.16.44.0 255.255.0.0 Serial0/0/0
  2. switchport access vlan 44 on Serial0/0/0
  3. ip route 172.16.44.0 255.255.255.0 Serial0/0/0
  4. ip address 172.16.44.0 255.255.255.0 on Serial0/0/0

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

On a true point-to-point routed interface leading only to R2, the static route ip route 172.16.44.0 255.255.255.0 Serial0/0/0 can select the correct outgoing link for the remote /24. The physical point-to-point topology makes exit-interface specification unambiguous because there is only the remote peer on that link. Verify that the serial interface and Layer 2 protocol are operational and that R2 provides onward reachability. This differs from multiaccess Ethernet, where a next-hop IP is often preferable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This static route uses mask 255.255.0.0, creating a destination /16 rather than the requested 172.16.44.0/24 subnet. It would cover far more addresses than intended and potentially draw traffic for unrelated 172.16 networks toward the serial link. A point-to-point exit interface is a valid static-route form, but the destination and mask must still match the remote network. Use the correct 255.255.255.0 mask to limit the route to the specified /24.

B:

switchport access vlan 44 is a Layer 2 Ethernet switchport VLAN assignment command, not a method of creating an IPv4 static route on a routed serial interface. Serial point-to-point links do not use ordinary Catalyst access VLAN membership for forwarding. The router needs a route table entry that identifies the remote 172.16.44.0/24 destination and its outgoing serial path. A VLAN command cannot install that Layer 3 reachability.

D:

ip address 172.16.44.0 255.255.255.0 would attempt to assign the remote subnet's network identifier to the local serial interface rather than install a route to that subnet. A conventional /24 network ID is not a usable local host address, and the far network is behind R2. Interface addressing should represent the actual transit link, while a static route names the remote destination. The configuration objectives are different and cannot be substituted.

Question 243

On a Windows client the application targets a prefix unexpectedly sent to an old gateway. Which built-in command displays the effective route list?

  1. ipconfig /all
  2. route print
  3. netstat -ano
  4. tracert 10.40.2.8

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The Windows route print command displays active IPv4 and IPv6 route information, including destination prefixes, gateways, interfaces and metrics. It is suitable for identifying a stale or more-specific entry that directs an application destination toward an old router. The engineer can compare the prefix, metric and interface to the intended path before making changes. This is a read-only first diagnostic, which helps preserve evidence rather than immediately modifying host routes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ipconfig /all shows Windows adapter settings such as assigned IP addresses, masks, gateways and DNS servers. Those fields are useful for checking whether the workstation received an incorrect network configuration, but they do not enumerate the complete effective destination-route list or path metrics. The symptom concerns an unexpectedly selected old gateway for a particular prefix. Inspecting route print provides the direct evidence of route entries rather than only interface parameters.

C:

netstat -ano lists network connections and listening sockets along with process identifiers, which can help associate traffic with applications. It does not provide the effective operating-system destination route table needed to determine why a prefix uses an old gateway. A connection may fail because of the route, but socket state alone does not identify the selected next hop. The requested built-in route inventory is displayed by route print.

D:

tracert sends probes to reveal the sequence of responding routed hops toward a specified destination. It may confirm that traffic currently travels through an old gateway, but it does not directly list all configured prefixes or administrative route metrics. Probe results can also be limited by filtering or ICMP behavior. Since the user asks for the effective route list, inspect route print first, then use tracing for additional path validation if needed.

Question 244

A switch uses DHCP snooping in VLAN 10. A printer has a permanent IPv4 address and never obtains a DHCP lease, yet its ARP packets are blocked by DAI on an untrusted port. What is a controlled remedy?

  1. Turn every access port into a trusted DAI port
  2. Disable the printer default gateway
  3. Change the DHCP lease timer on unrelated laptops
  4. Configure a validated static IP/MAC binding or suitable ARP ACL for the printer

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A verified static IP-to-MAC binding or carefully scoped ARP ACL can supply Dynamic ARP Inspection with an authorized mapping for a device that does not obtain DHCP leases. This allows the printer's legitimate ARP traffic to pass while keeping its access port untrusted for forged claims. Confirm the printer's true MAC, configured IPv4 address, VLAN and port placement before creating the exception. Broadly trusting access ports would sacrifice the protection that DAI provides to the rest of the subnet.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Making every access port trusted for Dynamic ARP Inspection would allow ARP packets from those ports to bypass normal binding validation, including potentially forged mappings from compromised endpoints. That removes the protection the feature is intended to provide. A printer with a static IP may need a targeted exception, but broad trust across all access interfaces creates avoidable exposure. Keep ordinary client ports untrusted and define a specific validated mapping instead.

B:

The printer's IPv4 default gateway controls how it reaches destinations outside its connected subnet, not whether an access switch considers its ARP sender mappings valid. Disabling the gateway could break printing across VLANs while leaving Dynamic ARP Inspection drop logic unchanged. The problem stems from absent DHCP snooping bindings for a statically addressed device. The remediation should teach DAI the approved IP-to-MAC association rather than altering application routing configuration.

C:

Changing DHCP lease duration for unrelated laptops affects how frequently those clients renew their assigned addresses. It will not create a binding entry for a statically addressed printer that never participates in DHCP. Dynamic ARP Inspection often relies on DHCP snooping binding information, but this printer's mapping must be supplied through an alternative trusted method. Adjusting other clients' leases leaves the actual validation failure unresolved.

Question 245

A generative assistant summarizes switch log messages but invents a configuration change that is absent from the logs. What risk is illustrated?

  1. An automatic STP root change
  2. A DHCP lease expiration
  3. An SNMP counter overflow
  4. A hallucinated, unsupported explanation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A hallucination occurs when a generative model produces a plausible-sounding assertion that is not supported by the available evidence. In this case it invents a device configuration change despite logs containing no such event. Treat model summaries as leads for verification, not authoritative records. Validate the actual running configuration, change-control history and device logs before acting, and preserve source citations so unsupported claims can be identified and corrected.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An STP root change occurs when spanning-tree bridge-ID information or topology causes another switch to be selected as the root for an instance. Nothing in the scenario says a bridge election actually happened. The issue is that a generative assistant asserted a configuration change that the source logs do not support. A fabricated summary can mislead operations teams, but it is not itself a verified Layer 2 topology event. Check the actual STP logs before asserting root changes.

B:

DHCP lease expiration follows address-allocation timers and may lead a client to renew or lose its IPv4 configuration. It is a real protocol event, not a term for an AI model inventing evidence. The presented problem involves a false claim about router or switch configuration that cannot be found in the input logs. The operator should verify reported changes against authoritative device configuration rather than diagnosing DHCP based on the model's unsupported narrative.

C:

An SNMP counter overflow is a numeric monitoring issue in which a counter wraps or exceeds a representation limit, potentially complicating rate calculations. It does not explain why a language model describes a configuration change absent from the underlying syslog data. Both situations can corrupt an analysis if unnoticed, but the root mechanisms differ. The symptom here is generated text introducing a nonexistent operational fact, not a telemetry counter behaving unexpectedly.

Question 246

A WAN edge must smooth bursts above 15 Mb/s by temporarily buffering excess traffic before transmitting it at the configured rate, rather than immediately discarding compliant excess. Which mechanism applies?

  1. Policing
  2. Shaping
  3. DSCP classification
  4. Default gateway selection

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Traffic shaping buffers eligible excess packets and schedules their transmission later so the output conforms to a configured rate, such as the stated 15 Mb/s. It is useful for smoothing bursts before a constrained WAN circuit, trading some queueing delay for fewer immediate drops. The buffer is finite, so extreme congestion can still cause loss. The requirement specifically says excess should wait rather than be discarded at first crossing the threshold, which identifies shaping.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Traffic policing enforces a rate by measuring traffic against configured thresholds and usually dropping or remarking excess packets rather than storing them for later transmission. It can protect a provider rate contract but may cause bursts to be discarded immediately. The question explicitly requires buffering excess traffic to smooth bursts into a 15-Mb/s output rate. That behavior is traffic shaping, not policing. The distinction affects application loss and delay characteristics.

C:

DSCP classification or marking identifies a packet's treatment class and can influence later scheduling or drop behavior on devices that honor the field. Setting or reading DSCP does not itself buffer a burst until the egress rate becomes available. Traffic can be marked consistently and still exceed a physical shaper's contracted rate. The problem calls for a queue that deliberately delays excess packets under a throughput limit, which is a shaping function.

D:

A default gateway or default route identifies where unmatched IP destinations should be forwarded, not the rate at which WAN frames may leave an interface. Changing that next hop could affect connectivity but cannot implement a 15-Mb/s burst-buffering policy. Path selection and traffic conditioning operate at different stages of forwarding. The required mechanism must queue excess traffic according to a configured rate rather than change only the destination route.

Question 247

On a multi-router OSPF Ethernet segment, two routers whose interface roles are both DROTHER remain in 2-WAY/DROTHER with each other, while each is FULL with the DR. What is the most accurate interpretation?

  1. OSPF must be disabled because all neighbors must be FULL with every router on the Ethernet segment
  2. The 2-WAY state between the two DROTHER routers can be normal
  3. Their adjacency requires changing both routers to separate areas
  4. They must set different IPv4 subnet masks to become FULL with each other

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

On a multiaccess Ethernet OSPF network, two DROTHER routers can remain in the 2-WAY neighbor state with each other while forming Full adjacencies with the DR and BDR as needed. This reduces unnecessary database-exchange complexity on broadcast segments. The question explicitly shows FULL with the DR and matching DROTHER roles, so that combination can be healthy. Investigate further only if expected DR-related adjacencies or routing information are missing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

On an OSPF broadcast network, DROTHER routers need to form full adjacencies with the elected designated and backup designated routers, but they do not generally become FULL with every other DROTHER neighbor. A two-way neighbor relationship between two non-DR routers can therefore be the expected stable state. The statement that every neighbor pair must become FULL would misdiagnose a normal multiaccess topology. Evaluate roles and who is adjacent to the DR/BDR before treating 2-WAY as failure.

C:

Routers on the same normal OSPF broadcast segment must use compatible area configuration. Placing neighbors into different areas would typically prevent adjacency, not force a DROTHER-to-DROTHER relationship to become FULL. The observed 2-WAY state can be normal for the roles described. Changing area IDs without a design reason risks breaking the healthy DR adjacencies. Diagnose neighbor roles and network type rather than altering the routing domain to chase an unnecessary Full state.

D:

Directly connected OSPF peers on a shared IPv4 Ethernet network ordinarily require compatible addressing and mask settings. Deliberately giving them different subnet masks can prevent normal communication or OSPF neighbor compatibility. The question already reports stable Full adjacencies with the DR, suggesting the basic segment design works. Two DROTHERs need not be Full with one another in the first place. Change neither subnet mask merely to force a state that is unnecessary for their roles.

Question 248

A small isolated office has one standalone AP. Its SSID, security and client behavior are managed directly on that AP, with no central WLAN controller. Which architecture best describes this arrangement?

  1. A centralized lightweight AP deployment using controller Local mode
  2. A wireless mesh MAP that depends on a wired RAP
  3. An autonomous AP architecture
  4. A WLC link-aggregation group

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An autonomous AP provides local configuration and operation for the WLAN service, including SSID and security settings, without depending on a central wireless LAN controller for basic service. That is appropriate for the isolated single-AP office described. Features depend on model and firmware, but the architectural distinction is who manages the wireless service. Here configuration lives on the AP itself, rather than through a controller Local-mode policy or mesh-backhaul parent.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Controller Local mode describes a lightweight access point that is managed by a WLAN controller and normally serves clients within a centralized control architecture. The scenario expressly has no controller and says the AP's SSID and policy are configured on the device itself. Those properties do not describe a controller-dependent lightweight AP. An isolated standalone deployment instead matches an autonomous access point with local configuration and client service.

B:

A mesh AP that depends on a wired root AP uses wireless backhaul to extend network coverage in a bridged or mesh topology. The question describes one small office access point with a direct local management model, not a root/mesh distribution arrangement. Mesh mode involves distinct backhaul and controller or management requirements. The mere fact that a device serves wireless clients does not make it a remote mesh node.

D:

A WLC Link Aggregation Group combines controller Ethernet uplinks into a logical channel for supported traffic and redundancy designs. It is a wired-link aggregation feature and does not describe an access point independently hosting its own WLAN security and SSID configuration. The office has no WLC at all, making a controller LAG irrelevant. The correct category follows the standalone AP management and client association behavior, not network uplink bundling.

Question 249

A warehouse has random Wi-Fi drops near industrial equipment. Operators need evidence of non-Wi-Fi RF energy at the affected frequency. What survey tool is relevant?

  1. Use only an 802.11 packet sniffer to decode beacon frames and assume they describe all RF noise
  2. A spectrum analyzer can reveal interfering RF signals and channel occupancy
  3. Review the switch MAC table to locate the RF emitter in the warehouse
  4. Change the WLAN’s IP subnet mask to isolate industrial interference

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A spectrum analyzer measures radio-frequency energy and can show channel occupancy or interferers even when their emissions are not valid 802.11 packets. It is well suited to detecting non-Wi-Fi sources near industrial equipment, such as machinery or other emitters causing intermittent client disruption. Correlate measurements with locations and times of reported drops before changing channels. The instrument reveals energy patterns; an ordinary Wi-Fi sniffer mainly interprets frames it can decode.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An 802.11 packet sniffer can decode Wi-Fi management and data frames on a channel, helping identify retries, beacons and some forms of wireless contention. It cannot necessarily characterize energy from non-Wi-Fi emitters such as industrial devices that do not produce decodable 802.11 frames. The warehouse problem specifically asks for evidence of other RF energy. An RF spectrum analysis view is needed rather than assuming visible Wi-Fi packets explain every interference source.

C:

A switch MAC address table maps learned Ethernet addresses to physical ports in a VLAN and can help locate which wired interface a device uses. It does not identify radio-frequency interference or the spectral signature of industrial machinery. A warehouse emitter may not be an Ethernet participant at all. The requested evidence concerns energy at a particular wireless frequency, which must be measured with RF-capable tools rather than by examining learned Layer 2 forwarding entries.

D:

Changing a WLAN client subnet mask alters which IP destinations appear on-link and can break routing if done inconsistently. It has no effect on interference produced by nearby industrial RF devices. Wireless signal corruption or contention occurs before IP address calculation becomes relevant to payload forwarding. The symptoms are location-dependent Wi-Fi drops, so first measure the RF spectrum and investigate noise, channel use and physical placement instead of changing network prefixes.

Question 250

A network manager considers TACACS+ for command-level device-administrator authorization. Which statement accurately distinguishes it from basic local-only login?

  1. TACACS+ is a Layer 2 protocol used to select an STP root
  2. TACACS+ must be used for every DHCP client address lease
  3. TACACS+ replaces the need for user identity checks
  4. TACACS+ can support centralized command authorization and accounting for device administration

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

TACACS+ can support centralized authentication, fine-grained command authorization and accounting for supported network-device administrative sessions. A router can consult the AAA service to decide whether a named engineer may issue sensitive commands and record the action centrally. Local-only accounts can be appropriate for emergency fallback, but do not inherently provide the same centralized policy control. Configure secure server reachability, protected credentials and resilient access before depending on the service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

STP uses bridge priorities, identifiers and BPDUs to elect root bridges and select loop-free Layer 2 forwarding paths. TACACS+ is not that protocol and cannot replace spanning-tree topology control. Its intended role is central administrative AAA for network infrastructure. The question asks about authorization of specific management commands, which involves identifying a user and enforcing policy rather than selecting which Ethernet switch is the STP root.

B:

DHCP is used for client addressing and lease lifecycle operations; TACACS+ does not have to participate in every DHCP transaction and normally is not deployed as its address-assignment authority. Network administrators may use TACACS+ to authenticate when configuring DHCP servers on routers, but that is a separate management activity. The requested distinction concerns CLI command authorization and accounting, not how an endpoint obtains its IPv4 address.

C:

A centralized TACACS+ deployment relies on identifying and authenticating administrators before its authorization rules can be meaningfully applied. It does not remove the need to verify user identity, nor does it automatically grant every command. An operator's identity is the basis for selecting command privileges and producing attributable audit records. The correct benefit over local-only login is centralized, policy-based management access rather than bypassing authentication checks.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests