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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 23

Question 220

A router has L 203.0.113.9/32 is directly connected, Loopback1 in its IPv4 table. Which interpretation is correct?

  1. 203.0.113.9 is an address configured on the local Loopback1 interface
  2. 203.0.113.9 must be a static default gateway on a distant subnet
  3. The router learned 203.0.113.9 from a directly adjacent BGP neighbor
  4. Loopback interfaces can contribute routes only when running RIP

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The L code in Cisco IOS IPv4 routing output denotes a local host route for an address assigned to the router itself. Here 203.0.113.9/32 belongs to Loopback1, so packets for that exact address are intended for local processing rather than forwarding to a neighbor as a remote subnet. A corresponding connected prefix may also appear depending on interface configuration. The /32 is the specific local identity, not evidence of a dynamically learned route.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A static default gateway would normally be represented by a route to 0.0.0.0/0 or an appropriate gateway configuration, not by an L /32 entry for a loopback address. The address 203.0.113.9 is owned locally according to the route code, and Loopback1 names the associated interface. A distant default next hop would use different route information. The displayed local host route therefore cannot be interpreted as an upstream catchall gateway.

C:

BGP-learned routes have their own IOS route codes and attributes and are not identified merely by the presence of a /32 destination. The L code specifically records a local address configured on the router. A Loopback1 interface is a logical local interface, not proof of an adjacent BGP peer. Even if BGP later advertises the loopback into a routing domain, that would not change what the local L entry means.

D:

A loopback interface can contribute local and connected routing-table entries through its own configured address when the interface is operational; it does not require RIP to be active. RIP is an independent distance-vector routing protocol that may advertise reachable prefixes under suitable policy. The question shows an L route bound to Loopback1, which comes from the router's own address assignment. Requiring RIP would confuse local interface routing state with dynamic route advertisement.

Question 221

A router is connected by an 802.1Q trunk to a switch. Clients in VLAN 30 need a gateway on router subinterface Gi0/0.30. Which subinterface directive identifies VLAN 30 frames?

  1. switchport access vlan 30
  2. encapsulation dot1Q 30
  3. switchport trunk allowed vlan 30
  4. ip helper-address 30.0.0.1

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

encapsulation dot1Q 30 under router subinterface Gi0/0.30 binds that logical interface to 802.1Q-tagged Ethernet frames carrying VLAN ID 30. The subinterface can then hold the appropriate IPv4 gateway address for hosts in VLAN 30, while the physical uplink connects through a compatible switch trunk. Confirm that VLAN 30 is permitted and available on the switch and that IP addressing does not overlap other VLAN gateways. The tag number, not the subinterface suffix alone, identifies the VLAN.

Incorrect Answers

A:

switchport access vlan 30 is a Layer 2 switchport configuration command for assigning untagged endpoint traffic to VLAN 30. The question asks for a router subinterface to recognize frames tagged by the switch trunk, and router subinterfaces normally require an encapsulation directive rather than a switchport access-VLAN setting. A router-on-a-stick gateway needs matching VLAN tag identifiers and an IP gateway address on each routed subinterface. Access mode on the router would not express that association.

C:

switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 belongs on a switchport and limits which VLANs may traverse a trunk. It can be necessary on the switch side, but it does not configure the routed router subinterface to decode VLAN 30 tags. A router-on-a-stick deployment has separate configuration contexts for switch trunk transport and the router's dot1Q subinterfaces. The requirement explicitly targets Gi0/0.30, so the missing element is encapsulation on that interface rather than an allowed-list switch command.

D:

ip helper-address allows a routed interface to relay certain local broadcasts, commonly DHCP requests, to a specified server address. Its argument is an IPv4 destination, not a VLAN tag selection. Even if DHCP relay were needed for clients in VLAN 30, that would be configured after the subinterface has the correct 802.1Q encapsulation and gateway addressing. The helper cannot make the router recognize tagged frames or create the VLAN association by itself.

Question 222

A configured IPv4 static route to 10.90.0.0/16 specifies administrative distance 255, and its next hop is reachable. Why is this route not installed in the Cisco IOS routing table?

  1. The /16 mask is invalid for a static IPv4 network route
  2. The router requires OSPF to redistribute all local static routes before installing them
  3. Administrative distance 255 makes the static route ineligible for route-table installation
  4. The route is installed only after the next-hop IPv4 address is made numerically smaller

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

In Cisco IOS, an administrative distance of 255 marks a route source as untrusted or ineligible for ordinary installation in the routing table. Therefore a static route with AD 255 may remain present in configuration without becoming an active forwarding entry even if its next hop resolves. This is different from a high but usable floating distance such as 200. The operator should choose an allowed distance appropriate to desired primary or backup preference.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A /16 subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 is a valid contiguous IPv4 network mask and can be used in a normal static route. Nothing about that prefix length inherently prevents installation. Cisco IOS evaluates the entire route, including next-hop resolution and administrative distance, rather than rejecting all routes shorter than /24. The scenario supplies a reachable next hop but an administrative distance of 255, which is the decisive disqualification.

B:

Static routes do not need OSPF redistribution to enter the local IOS routing table. Redistribution is used when routes from one source should be advertised into another routing protocol, not to make the router recognize its own configured static entry. A static can normally install without any OSPF process if its prefix, next-hop resolution and route preference are suitable. The explicitly configured distance of 255 blocks its use independently of dynamic-route advertisement.

D:

Administrative distance has no dependence on whether the numerical value of the next-hop IPv4 address is larger or smaller than the destination address or router's own address. A next hop must be reachable and resolve through an eligible forwarding path, but its decimal ordering is irrelevant. The question already confirms reachability, isolating the configured AD 255 as the problem. Changing to a numerically smaller gateway would not make that route eligible.

Question 223

Two devices share VLAN 30. Device A is 10.40.18.194/29 and device B is 10.40.18.198/29. Both have healthy Layer 2 connectivity. What forwarding behavior follows from these addressing details?

  1. They can exchange IPv4 traffic directly through Layer 2 neighbor resolution without an inter-subnet router
  2. A must send all traffic for B through its default gateway because their last octets differ
  3. They belong to distinct /29 subnets and require inter-VLAN routing
  4. Their .194 and .198 values are both subnet-directed broadcast addresses

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

With a /29 mask, 10.40.18.194 and 10.40.18.198 are both ordinary usable host addresses in the same 10.40.18.192/29 subnet. Because they share VLAN 30 and have operational Layer 2 connectivity, device A can ARP for B's MAC and send Ethernet frames directly. A routed gateway is not needed to reach a host in the same on-link prefix. The default gateway becomes relevant for destinations outside that subnet.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Different last-octet host values do not automatically imply different IPv4 networks. The /29 prefix groups addresses.192 through.199 together, and.194 and.198 fall in that common block. A should consider B on-link and use local ARP rather than send the packet to a gateway. Source and destination would need different effective subnets or policy constraints before a normal inter-subnet forwarding decision became necessary.

C:

A /29 network advances in increments of eight addresses, and the block starting at 10.40.18.192 contains both hosts. They therefore are not in distinct /29 networks and, according to the question, even share one VLAN. Inter-VLAN routing would be needed for traffic crossing separate VLAN/subnet boundaries, not this local exchange. The requirement already supplies healthy Layer 2 connectivity, so the correct behavior is direct neighbor resolution.

D:

The network address for the containing /29 is 10.40.18.192, and its directed broadcast is 10.40.18.199. Values.194 and.198 lie between those reserved endpoints and are conventionally assignable unicast host addresses. Their presence in one subnet is why the machines can communicate directly. Labeling both as broadcast values confuses the subnet's boundary addresses with ordinary host positions and would lead to incorrect IP configuration troubleshooting.

Question 224

Which TWO design choices improve an organization’s remote network-administrator authentication beyond simply requiring longer shared passwords? Choose TWO.

  1. Deploy a second factor resistant to password theft
  2. Allow the same administrative credentials in email and shared chat threads
  3. Set all management passwords to the same long string
  4. Treat a biometric as a substitute for every authorization check
  5. Use individual accounts with controlled revocation when roles change

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

A second authentication factor that is independent of the administrator's password reduces the risk that a stolen or reused password alone permits remote device-management access. Prefer phishing-resistant methods where supported and enforce the factor through the relevant identity and access platform. Multi-factor authentication does not replace account authorization or secure management transport, but materially strengthens identity verification. This directly improves on a policy that only makes one shared password longer.

E:

Distinct administrator accounts let security teams apply per-person permissions, produce attributable activity logs and revoke access promptly when employees leave or change duties. Central lifecycle management reduces stale shared credentials and supports least privilege when combined with appropriate role assignments. Each operator should retain a unique authentication identity rather than inheriting a team-wide secret. This complements a theft-resistant second factor, addressing both initial login assurance and ongoing account governance.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Sending administrative credentials through email and group chat creates uncontrolled copies that can be forwarded, searched or compromised by unrelated accounts. It also blurs who used a shared credential and complicates revocation when someone changes role. Even a very long password becomes weak operationally when freely distributed. Secure credential storage and individually assigned identities are preferable to sharing secrets across messaging channels, especially for privileged router access.

C:

Using the same long password for all administrator accounts or devices creates a common point of failure: exposure in one place can compromise every other protected system. Length improves resistance to guessing but does not provide user attribution, revocation or compartmentalization. An individually authenticated employee should not implicitly inherit another administrator's secrets. The question seeks stronger identity controls beyond password length, so shared credential reuse does not satisfy it.

D:

A biometric can support authentication by verifying a personal characteristic, often as one component of a larger sign-in system. It does not automatically authorize every command or define which routers an operator may administer. Authentication answers who the user is, while authorization controls actions and scope. Replacing all authorization checks with a biometric would violate least privilege even if identification were accurate. Separate user-role policies and audit records are still required.

Question 225

Which TWO statements fairly contrast controller-based and traditional network management? Choose TWO.

  1. Traditional management often relies on per-device CLI or management sessions
  2. Controller-based management always removes all need for routing protocols
  3. Traditional devices cannot expose any APIs
  4. A controller never requires authentication or audit trails
  5. A controller can coordinate policies across multiple managed devices

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Traditional network administration often involves separate CLI, console or management sessions to configure switches and routers individually. That model gives operators direct device control but makes uniform changes across many systems slower and more prone to inconsistent execution. APIs can exist on traditional devices, so 'often' is an important qualifier rather than a claim that CLI is the only method. The contrast is with centrally coordinated policy and automation in controller-based environments.

E:

A network controller can maintain a logical view of multiple managed devices and distribute coordinated policy or configuration changes, reducing repetitive per-device operations. This helps enforce consistency when deploying VLAN, routing or access policies across a campus. Device-specific validation and rollback are still necessary because implementations can fail or diverge. The statement accurately contrasts the controller's network-wide coordination with management workflows centered on individual CLI sessions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A controller can centralize network intent and management, but the underlying infrastructure still needs valid forwarding information and routing or switching protocols appropriate to the topology. A campus may continue using OSPF, BGP, spanning tree or other mechanisms depending on architecture. No controller automatically eliminates all routing algorithms or next-hop decisions. Centralized orchestration can influence configuration without replacing distributed data-plane behavior or every control-plane protocol.

C:

Conventional routers and switches may provide REST, NETCONF, SNMP or vendor APIs in addition to their CLI interfaces, depending on platform and software release. Controller-based design changes how policy is coordinated, not whether APIs are physically possible on older management architectures. Claiming traditional devices can never expose APIs is an absolute and false generalization. The user asks for fair comparisons rather than exaggerated distinctions between operational approaches.

D:

A controller is a high-value management component that should require strong administrator authentication, authorization and logging. Centralizing policy can increase the impact of compromised credentials, so audit trails and secure API access remain essential. Controller-based management does not exempt the organization from security controls. The proper comparison is operational coordination across devices, not removal of identity management or the assumption that a centralized management plane requires no oversight.

Question 226

A network device should send syslog messages to collector 192.0.2.70. Which global IOS directive supplies the collector destination?

  1. logging host 192.0.2.70
  2. ntp server 192.0.2.70
  3. snmp-server host 192.0.2.70
  4. ip helper-address 192.0.2.70

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

logging host 192.0.2.70 configures a remote syslog destination on supported IOS devices, enabling system messages to be sent to the specified collector according to configured severity, transport and other logging settings. It does not automatically guarantee delivery if routing or filters block the path. Verify reachability, timestamp accuracy and the receiving collector's permitted sources. The requested element is the logging destination, which this global command directly supplies.

Incorrect Answers

B:

ntp server 192.0.2.70 asks the router to synchronize its clock with the address as a time source. Accurate time makes syslog timestamps more useful, but NTP does not send diagnostic events to a log collector. The same host might run several services, yet the command specifically selects a time protocol association. To forward syslog messages, the operator needs the logging-host directive rather than a clock configuration line.

C:

snmp-server host configures a management notification receiver, such as for SNMP traps or informs, depending on accompanying parameters and platform behavior. These notifications are distinct from syslog messages, which follow a separate logging configuration. A monitoring platform may accept both protocols, but one destination setting does not imply the other. The question expressly asks for syslog forwarding and therefore should use logging host rather than an SNMP notification destination.

D:

ip helper-address configures broadcast relay behavior on an appropriate routed interface, commonly forwarding DHCP client requests to a remote server. It does not specify where the router should send its own syslog events. A DHCP relay target and a log collector can be numerically the same address, but their protocol roles are unrelated. The requirement is a device-generated management message, not relaying another host's Layer 2 broadcast across subnets.

Question 227

An IPv6 static route uses a link-local next hop fe80::2 rather than a globally unique neighbor address. Which IOS form is required to resolve the next hop on a specific interface?

  1. ipv6 route 2001:db8:50::/64 fe80::2 with no exit interface
  2. ipv6 route 2001:db8:50::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0 fe80::2
  3. ip route 2001:db8:50::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0 fe80::2
  4. ipv6 route fe80::2/128 2001:db8:50::1

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

ipv6 route 2001:db8:50::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0 fe80::2 specifies the desired destination prefix, the egress interface and the link-local neighbor used as next hop. The interface identifies the link scope needed to resolve fe80::2, which is not globally unique. The neighbor must be reachable on that link for the route to forward traffic. This is the normal fully specified static form for link-local IPv6 next hops on Cisco IOS.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An IPv6 link-local address such as fe80::2 has meaning only in the context of an attached interface and may be reused on unrelated network segments. Specifying it as a static next hop without an exit interface can leave IOS unable to determine the correct link on which to resolve that neighbor. A globally unique next-hop address may be unambiguous in a different case, but link-local next hops require interface context. Supply both the outgoing interface and fe80::2.

C:

ip route is the traditional IPv4 static-routing command on Cisco IOS and expects IPv4 destination and next-hop syntax. The supplied prefix and fe80 address are IPv6 values, so this is the wrong protocol-family command. An IPv6 static route is created with ipv6 route in the appropriate context, including interface scope for a link-local neighbor. Using the IPv4 command would not install the requested IPv6 destination entry.

D:

The command ipv6 route fe80::2/128 2001:db8:50::1 treats the link-local neighbor as the destination prefix rather than the forwarding next hop. It also does not express the required remote 2001:db8:50::/64 network. Local-link addresses are not ordinary globally routed destination ranges; they need egress-interface context. The correct static route must name the remote /64 as destination and fe80::2 as its scoped next hop.

Question 228

Two directly connected Cisco switchports both use switchport mode dynamic auto and neither currently has a static trunk setting. What explains why an 802.1Q trunk is not negotiated on their link?

  1. A native VLAN can be used only with dynamic desirable
  2. Dynamic auto does not initiate DTP trunk negotiation on either end
  3. All dynamic-auto ports become trunks only when ip routing is enabled
  4. 802.1Q tags cannot traverse a Gigabit Ethernet interface

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A port in switchport mode dynamic auto listens for DTP negotiation but does not proactively attempt to establish a trunk. With dynamic auto on both ends and no static trunk, neither endpoint starts the negotiation needed for trunk formation. A compatible desirable or static trunk configuration on a peer can change the outcome on supported switches. The observed failure is therefore an inactive negotiation pairing, not lack of 802.1Q support on Gigabit Ethernet.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The native VLAN governs how untagged traffic is handled on a trunk and may need matching configuration on both ends. It is not restricted to links running Dynamic Trunking Protocol desirable mode, nor is it the reason two auto-mode ports fail to negotiate a trunk. Trunk operational mode and native VLAN assignment are separate concepts. The scenario specifically says neither side actively initiates DTP, which is the key negotiation issue.

C:

ip routing enables Layer 3 packet forwarding on capable switches and has no direct bearing on whether a pair of Layer 2 switchports negotiates trunking using DTP. Trunks can carry multiple VLANs on devices that do not route between those VLANs at all. The relationship between two dynamic-auto ports remains unchanged when IP routing is enabled elsewhere. Configure an appropriate trunk mode combination to establish the intended 802.1Q link.

D:

Gigabit Ethernet links can transport 802.1Q-tagged frames when both devices and interfaces support trunking. The failure to negotiate in the question is due to DTP operating modes, not an Ethernet speed restriction. A trunk may be statically configured or dynamically negotiated under supported mode combinations. Since both ends use dynamic auto, the correct diagnosis is that neither side initiates negotiation, even though the physical link itself may be healthy.

Question 229

A network emulator uses 198.18.10.1 for a benchmarking network. An engineer labels it RFC1918 private address space. Which correction is accurate?

  1. 198.18.0.0/15 is part of RFC1918 because benchmarking must use private addresses
  2. 198.18.10.1 is ordinary globally reachable public IPv4 space without special purpose
  3. 198.18.0.0/15 is benchmarking space, not an RFC1918 allocation
  4. 198.18.0.0/15 is the carrier-grade NAT block that replaces 100.64.0.0/10

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Address 198.18.10.1 falls within 198.18.0.0/15, a block reserved for network benchmarking and device testing rather than one of the three RFC1918 private-use allocations. Although it is special-use space and not normal public Internet addressing, its reason for reservation differs from enterprise private IPv4 addressing. Correct classification matters when designing isolated test networks and documenting route filtering. Do not call every nonpublic-purpose address an RFC1918 address.

Incorrect Answers

A:

RFC1918 identifies three private IPv4 blocks: 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12 and 192.168.0.0/16. The benchmarking range 198.18.0.0/15 has a different reserved purpose and is not added to RFC1918 merely because it is used in a lab. Different special-use allocations may all be absent from public routing but remain distinct categories. The question asks for the accurate classification of the actual benchmark address.

B:

The prefix 198.18.0.0/15 is reserved for benchmark testing, so describing it as ordinary globally reachable public unicast space ignores its designated special-purpose status. It should not be treated as a production Internet host assignment. A route might exist in an isolated test environment, but that does not make it a globally allocated public prefix. The candidate contradicts the purpose of the range in which 198.18.10.1 resides.

D:

Carrier-grade NAT shared address space is 100.64.0.0/10, a separate purpose-defined block used between service providers and customers in relevant designs. Benchmarking 198.18.0.0/15 does not replace that range and should not be treated as interchangeable. Both can be unfamiliar to operators focused only on RFC1918, but their numerical prefixes and operational roles differ. The emulator's 198.18.10.1 belongs to the benchmarking allocation, not the CGN shared-address block.

Question 230

An administrator compares IPsec tunnel mode and transport mode. Which statement is correct for typical gateway-to-gateway site VPNs?

  1. Tunnel mode encapsulates the original IP packet inside a new outer IP header
  2. Transport mode always adds a second outer IP header around every packet
  3. Both modes are simply names for choosing VLAN tags
  4. Tunnel mode eliminates the need to select protected traffic

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

IPsec tunnel mode encapsulates the original IP packet as protected inner traffic and adds a new outer IP header for transport between tunnel endpoints. That is the usual gateway-to-gateway VPN pattern because private source and destination networks can be carried inside an externally routed packet. ESP can encrypt and authenticate selected inner traffic according to configured security associations. Both gateways still need suitable routing, keys and traffic selectors; tunnel encapsulation alone does not make every flow protected.

Incorrect Answers

B:

In typical IPsec transport mode, protection applies mainly to the payload of the existing IP packet without the same new outer IP encapsulation used in tunnel mode. Transport mode may be appropriate for host-to-host protection or certain specialized designs. The option incorrectly assigns tunnel-mode encapsulation semantics to every transport-mode packet. A site-to-site VPN between gateways commonly uses tunnel mode because each gateway protects traffic for networks behind it.

C:

VLAN tags identify Layer 2 broadcast domains on Ethernet trunks, whereas IPsec tunnel and transport modes describe how IP packets are protected and encapsulated for secure communication. They are not alternative names for trunk tagging. An IPsec-protected packet may traverse VLAN-tagged links, but that network carriage does not define its security mode. The user asks about VPN encapsulation between gateways, which is unrelated to native or tagged VLAN membership.

D:

Even in IPsec tunnel mode, operators must define or negotiate which traffic should be protected, how peers authenticate and which security associations apply. Some flows may be exempt, dropped or use a different tunnel depending on policies and routing. Creating an outer IP header does not automatically encrypt every packet on the device. The scenario tests the original packet's encapsulation, not a promise that configuring tunnel mode removes the need for traffic selection.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests