Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 22
Question 210
A facilities team installs a lock on the network rack, while the SOC reviews camera footage for after-hours access. Which statement correctly compares these controls?
- Both controls are solely packet filters
- The lock mainly detects, while retained video directly blocks entry
- The lock is primarily preventive; reviewed footage is detective
- Neither requires authorized personnel to operate safely
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A rack lock is a preventive security control intended to obstruct unauthorized physical access to network equipment. Reviewing camera footage is primarily detective, helping security personnel identify after-hours entry and investigate suspicious actions. The combination offers complementary protection: one reduces opportunity while the other records and reveals possible violations. Neither mechanism is sufficient alone for all physical security risks; access policy, logging and response procedures still matter.
Incorrect Answers
A:A physical rack lock restricts entry to equipment, and a camera system records activity in a facility. Neither is primarily a packet filter that evaluates Ethernet frames or IP sessions. The lock operates on physical access while footage provides evidence for reviewing events. Network firewalls and ACLs perform logical packet filtering, which is a separate security-control category. Confusing these purposes would leave physical-access management inadequately described.
B:A mechanical lock is mainly preventive because it inhibits entry unless the person has the proper key or access mechanism. Recorded camera footage generally supports detection or investigation after or during activity, but does not physically stop someone from opening a cabinet. If the footage is reviewed, it can reveal unauthorized access and trigger response. The proposed option reverses the roles and attributes a blocking capability to video recording alone.
D:Authorized personnel must maintain locks, issue or revoke keys and review camera recordings under controlled access and retention policies. An unmanaged lock can become a recovery obstacle, while unchecked camera footage may never reveal an incident. The scenario explicitly has a facilities team and SOC performing these functions. Both controls require secure operation and governance even though one is preventive and the other supports detection. Their existence does not remove the need for responsible administrators.
Question 211
A Cisco IOS router needs a discard route for unused addresses in aggregate 198.18.0.0/16, while keeping already installed more-specific routes to active subnets. Which static route can provide that fallback?
ip route 198.18.0.0 255.255.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/0ip route 198.18.0.0 255.255.255.255 Null0ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Null0ip route 198.18.0.0 255.255.0.0 Null0
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:ip route 198.18.0.0 255.255.0.0 Null0 creates a static discard route for the aggregate /16. Traffic to an unused address within the aggregate matches this sink unless a more-specific installed route for an active subnet takes precedence under longest-prefix matching. This is useful to avoid forwarding loops or accidental propagation of traffic for unallocated summary space. Confirm the summary and specific prefixes are correct, because misconfigured holes can still cause unwanted drops.
Incorrect Answers
A:A static route pointing 198.18.0.0/16 out GigabitEthernet0/0 would direct matching traffic toward that physical network interface rather than intentionally discard unmatched addresses inside the aggregate. It may also cause unnecessary neighbor-resolution attempts depending on link type. The operator wants to suppress unused aggregate destinations while keeping more-specific active subnets reachable. A Null0 summary discard route expresses that behavior directly, with longest-prefix matching protecting valid narrower routes.
B:The mask 255.255.255.255 defines only the single host address 198.18.0.0/32, not the full /16 aggregate. Although the Null0 outgoing interface would discard packets matching that host route, it would leave most other unused addresses in 198.18.0.0/16 outside the sink prefix. The stated goal needs a broad aggregate fallback. Use the proper 255.255.0.0 mask to cover the entire planned block rather than one address.
C:A default route 0.0.0.0/0 pointing to Null0 would discard every otherwise unmatched IPv4 destination, not just unused destinations within 198.18.0.0/16. That could suppress unrelated external connectivity and is much broader than the intended aggregate protection. The operator has a specific block to safeguard, so the discard route should use that /16 prefix. A matching more-specific route will still normally override the sink for active subnets.
Question 212
A controller centrally switches clients assigned to WLAN VLANs 40 and 50. The WLC uplink to the LAN must transport both user VLANs to the distribution switch. Which uplink choice matches the required multiple-VLAN data path?
- An 802.1Q trunk permitting the required client VLANs
- A plain access port with only VLAN 40 and no additional VLAN support
- A console rollover cable between controller and distribution switch
- A default IPv4 route with no switchport VLAN configuration
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:An 802.1Q trunk can carry multiple client VLANs over the same physical WLC-to-switch uplink when supported by the controller's central-switching architecture. Permitting both VLAN 40 and VLAN 50 gives the distribution switch the correct tagged data paths for those WLAN clients. Matching native VLAN, allowed-list and policy mappings on both sides is necessary. The requirement is simultaneous transport of two client broadcast domains, not merely reaching a controller management address.
Incorrect Answers
B:An ordinary access port belongs to one untagged VLAN, so a WLC uplink configured only for access VLAN 40 cannot transport separate VLAN 50 tagged client frames under the stated architecture. It might be appropriate for a simple single-VLAN management-only connection, but not this two-client-VLAN data path. The correct link should support 802.1Q tagging and allow the needed VLANs. Controller policy mapping must also select the respective client networks.
C:A console rollover cable is used for local serial administration on supported network equipment, not for carrying ordinary high-speed Ethernet client VLANs. It cannot act as an 802.1Q data uplink between the WLC and distribution switch. Console reachability is useful when network management fails, but that is independent of user traffic forwarding. The requirement concerns tagged data frames from multiple WLANs, so use a suitable Ethernet trunk rather than a serial cable.
D:An IPv4 default route tells the controller or nearby router where to send destinations outside known directly connected networks; it does not itself configure multiple Layer 2 VLAN memberships on a switchport. Even perfect routing cannot substitute for physically carrying client VLAN 40 and 50 frames to the distribution switch. The operator needs appropriate 802.1Q trunking and VLAN policy first. IP routes become relevant for forwarding traffic beyond those client subnets afterward.
Question 213
A 1 Gb/s endpoint intermittently links at only 100 Mb/s after a room renovation. Which check targets the likely medium issue?
- Extend the DHCP lease duration so the switch advertises a 1-Gb/s link to the host
- Force 1000-Mb/s full-duplex operation without inspecting the installed copper pairs
- Move the port to a different VLAN while leaving the damaged structured cabling in service
- Test the copper cable pairs and auto-negotiation parameters
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A 1000BASE-T link ordinarily depends on all four cable pairs and properly functioning Ethernet auto-negotiation between capable peers. Damage during renovation, split or open pairs, or incompatible termination can cause the endpoint to link at a lower speed. Cable-pair diagnostics and checking negotiated speed/duplex directly target that failure. If the cabling tests clean, examine port capability and settings; changing DHCP or VLAN policies does not repair the PHY.
Incorrect Answers
A:DHCP lease duration controls how long a host may retain its assigned IPv4 parameters before renewal. It has no effect on the Ethernet PHY negotiating 100 Mb/s versus 1000 Mb/s on the access link. The timing of the fault after a room renovation points toward altered copper cabling, connectors or negotiation behavior. Increasing DHCP lease time would only change IP configuration lifecycle, not restore electrical signaling across all required cable pairs.
B:Forcing gigabit full duplex without checking damaged cabling can create an additional mismatch or mask the underlying physical defect. 1000BASE-T normally uses all four twisted pairs and relies on appropriate negotiation and pair quality. A newly broken or misterminated pair may prevent consistent gigabit operation regardless of a forced setting. Inspect the copper channel and switch/endpoint negotiation rather than overriding speed assumptions before understanding the link impairment.
C:A switchport's access VLAN determines Layer 2 broadcast-domain membership, not the physical speed that the transceiver negotiates with an endpoint. Changing VLANs could affect IP connectivity while leaving the cabling defect untouched. The user reports a fall from 1 Gb/s to 100 Mb/s after a renovation, which is a physical-layer symptom. Keep the logical segmentation consistent and test pair continuity, wiring and autonegotiation parameters instead.
Question 214
An Ethernet link connects exactly two OSPFv2 routers and is configured on both ends as point-to-point network type. Which election behavior is expected?
- The higher router ID must be DR and the other must be BDR
- Both routers must be forced to priority 255 to elect two DRs
- The link uses classic Layer 2 STP root election in place of OSPF adjacency
- No DR or BDR is elected on that OSPF point-to-point link
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:OSPFv2 point-to-point network type assumes a link between the two participating routers and does not elect a designated router or backup designated router. The peers can form their normal adjacency directly, subject to matching parameters and healthy connectivity. DR/BDR roles are relevant on OSPF broadcast or other appropriate multiaccess network types, not this one. Inspect show ip ospf interface to verify the network type if the output seems inconsistent.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF designated and backup designated router elections occur on suitable multiaccess network types, such as broadcast Ethernet when configured as that type. A point-to-point OSPF network type represents a two-router adjacency and does not hold a DR election merely because router IDs differ. Those IDs remain important for unique neighbor identity, but they do not determine a DR/BDR on the described link. The question explicitly fixes both ends as point-to-point.
B:Setting OSPF interface priorities to the maximum does not cause two DRs to be elected on one point-to-point link. Priority influences election eligibility on network types that conduct DR/BDR elections, not on the stated point-to-point network. Forcing a high value could be useful in an appropriate broadcast topology, but it would not change the specified link's election model. Verify the interface network type when interpreting observed neighbor state.
C:Spanning Tree Protocol selects loop-free Layer 2 forwarding paths among switches using bridge and port roles. OSPFv2 adjacency establishment is a Layer 3 routing-protocol process with its own Hello, database exchange and state transitions. A point-to-point OSPF network does not substitute an STP root election for routing. Even if the Ethernet segment participates in Layer 2 switching elsewhere, its OSPF neighbor behavior remains a separate protocol function.
Question 215
An engineer wants an automated script to make a port configuration converge to the desired state when rerun, without adding duplicate changes each time. What property is important?
- Randomizing commands on every run
- Refusing to read the current switch state
- Disabling version control for device templates
- Idempotent, state-aware automation
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Idempotent automation aims to reach a specified state and then perform no unnecessary changes when rerun against a device that already matches it. State-aware modules inspect configuration or use supported APIs to decide whether to act, avoiding repeated additions or interface flaps. This directly fits the port-convergence requirement. Verify module semantics on the actual IOS release and stage changes, because idempotence is a property of implementation, not an automatic guarantee from any script label.
Incorrect Answers
A:Randomizing configuration commands on each execution would make the same playbook produce different network states and reduce the operator's ability to predict or audit changes. An idempotent workflow instead converges on one specified desired configuration and leaves compliant interfaces unchanged. Variation can be useful in controlled test data, but not as an uncontrolled characteristic of production port setup. The stated goal is repeatable convergence, which random changes directly undermine.
B:Ignoring the current device state makes it difficult for automation to know whether an interface already has the desired configuration or requires a change. A blind append operation may duplicate commands or inadvertently disrupt service on every run. Idempotent modules or carefully implemented checks compare actual and intended state before making necessary adjustments. The scenario expressly wants safe reruns, so state awareness is a core requirement rather than something to refuse.
C:Version control provides traceability of intended device configuration and helps operators review, approve and roll back changes. Disabling it removes useful audit evidence without making an automation step idempotent. A playbook can be rerun safely when its modules are state-aware, regardless of whether files are stored in Git, but versioned templates strengthen governance. The user asks about repeatability of the applied configuration, not suppressing recordkeeping of the desired intent.
Question 216
An administrator wants SNMP management traffic to use per-user security with authentication and optional encryption instead of a shared cleartext community string. Which family is appropriate?
- SNMPv1 with public community
- SNMPv3 with the appropriate authenticated and privacy settings
- SNMPv2c with write access set to public
- Syslog over UDP without authentication
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:SNMPv3's User-based Security Model supports named users with authentication and, in its authPriv security level, confidentiality through supported privacy algorithms. That distinguishes it from simple shared community strings in SNMPv1/v2c and matches the request for stronger management access. Use approved algorithms, unique secrets and tightly scoped monitoring permissions. The chosen security level must include both authentication and privacy when encryption is required; merely saying SNMPv3 does not guarantee every deployment enables both.
Incorrect Answers
A:SNMPv1 commonly uses community strings for access control and does not provide the modern per-user security services requested. A public community is especially risky because it is a familiar default and may expose management data if left enabled. The requirement calls for authenticated individual security principals and optional traffic privacy, neither of which is delivered by a basic v1 community configuration. Replace legacy access with appropriately configured SNMPv3 user security.
C:SNMPv2c retains the community-string access model and does not gain user-specific authentication or payload encryption merely by granting write privileges. Setting a familiar public community for write access can expose unauthorized device changes and is contrary to the requested hardening. SNMPv2c may be present in legacy monitoring networks, but it cannot provide the described per-user auth/privacy model. Use SNMPv3 with restricted user privileges and secure algorithms instead.
D:Syslog can send event messages to a collector over UDP, but that is a logging protocol rather than the SNMP mechanism used to query managed objects and counters. Plain UDP syslog also does not automatically provide per-user SNMP authentication or encryption. A device may use both secure logging and SNMPv3 for different operational purposes. The question focuses on management polling security rather than event message transport, so syslog is not the relevant family.
Question 217
An administrator wants the console port to use the device local named-user database rather than a single shared console line password. Which console subcommand changes its login method?
password 7transport input sshlogin localip access-group 10 in
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:login local under line console 0 instructs IOS to authenticate console logins against its local username database rather than a single configured shared line password. Each administrator can use a unique username and protected secret, improving accountability when combined with appropriate privilege assignment and logging. Ensure valid local accounts exist before changing the line method to avoid locking out operators. This setting changes how credentials are checked on that console line.
Incorrect Answers
A:The password command can set a shared line credential under console configuration, but the operator wants login based on the local named-user database. A numeric argument alone is not the method-selection directive, and legacy shared line passwords provide weak individual attribution. For local-user authentication, the device must have valid username/secret records and the console line must invoke that method. Configure login local rather than relying solely on a line password value.
B:transport input ssh is relevant to permitting SSH access on suitable VTY lines, not to changing the physical console line's authentication method. The console uses a local serial or USB administrative channel and does not receive incoming SSH transport sessions in the same way. Even where SSH is correctly configured for remote management, the console can use a different local login policy. The requirement specifically asks for named local users at console access.
D:ip access-group 10 in applies an IPv4 ACL to an appropriate routed interface context; it is not the console-line command that selects named-user authentication. A physical console connection does not rely on the ordinary inbound IP forwarding path. Network access restrictions can complement management security for VTY sessions, but cannot replace local console login method configuration. The operator needs login local under the console line after defining local user credentials.
Question 218
A company uses a central server to authenticate individual Wi-Fi clients using 802.1X against organizational credentials, rather than one shared PSK. Which AAA protocol commonly carries these network-access authentication exchanges?
- CDP
- SSH
- RADIUS
- LLDP
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:RADIUS is commonly used between an 802.1X authenticator such as a wireless controller or access point and a backend authentication server. It carries authentication, authorization and accounting information, including EAP-related exchanges in enterprise WLAN deployments. That supports individual employee identities instead of one shared pre-shared key. Configure secure server trust, appropriate EAP methods and controlled network access; successful RADIUS authentication is separate from assigning correct VLAN and other client policy.
Incorrect Answers
A:CDP advertises Cisco device identity and interface information to neighboring supported equipment. It does not transport a station's 802.1X authentication exchange to a corporate identity server. Wireless access points may use CDP for switch-neighbor discovery, but that is unrelated to per-user WLAN authentication. The requirement is to validate individual client credentials through a backend server, which is commonly implemented using RADIUS rather than Layer 2 neighbor advertisements.
B:SSH provides an encrypted administrative terminal session and can authenticate a network operator to a router or switch. It is not the normal backend AAA protocol through which a WLAN authenticator carries 802.1X/EAP identity exchanges to a centralized service. An engineer may manage the controller through SSH, yet clients still need their separate wireless authentication path. The question asks for network-access AAA transport, not management of the WLC's command line.
D:LLDP is a standards-based neighbor discovery protocol that advertises chassis, port and related device information across directly connected Layer 2 links. It does not evaluate organizational user credentials or provide a central identity decision for joining a corporate WLAN. A switch can advertise LLDP while a WLC relies on RADIUS for 802.1X. The two mechanisms solve separate needs: physical topology awareness versus authenticated network admission.
Question 219
A traditional DNS resolver sends a small, ordinary query to its recursive DNS server and wants the conventional initial destination transport/port. Which choice is correctly specified?
- UDP destination port 53 for a standard DNS query
- TCP destination port 25, which is normally SMTP
- UDP destination port 161, which is commonly used by SNMP
- TCP destination port 22, which ordinarily provides SSH
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A conventional compact DNS resolver query is commonly sent to UDP destination port 53 on the configured recursive resolver. The DNS service returns the requested resource records when available, though some operations, large responses or truncation fallback may use TCP port 53 instead. The question explicitly asks for the ordinary initial transport and destination of a small query. Neither the client source port nor the returned address record is the server's fixed destination port in this context.
Incorrect Answers
B:TCP destination port 25 is conventionally used by SMTP servers to receive mail-transfer connections, not by a standard recursive DNS resolver for an ordinary lookup. Although both DNS and SMTP rely on network name information in broader workflows, their service endpoints are distinct. Sending a DNS question to an SMTP listener would not produce the expected DNS response. Choose the DNS service port 53 with the appropriate initial transport for the compact query.
C:UDP destination port 161 is associated with SNMP management queries, allowing monitoring systems to retrieve counters or managed objects from devices. It shares the UDP transport family with many ordinary DNS questions, but the application service port is different. A DNS resolver expecting port 53 cannot be reached by simply choosing any UDP service. The correct pairing must identify both the intended protocol and the service-specific port number.
D:TCP destination port 22 belongs to SSH, which provides encrypted administrative terminal sessions and certain secure transfer mechanisms. DNS name resolution is not normally performed by sending conventional resolver questions to that SSH endpoint. The fact that many services use TCP does not make their destination ports interchangeable. For the small standard DNS request described, UDP port 53 is the appropriate initial service destination; TCP 53 remains possible in other DNS situations.
Question 220
A router has L 203.0.113.9/32 is directly connected, Loopback1 in its IPv4 table. Which interpretation is correct?
- 203.0.113.9 is an address configured on the local Loopback1 interface
- 203.0.113.9 must be a static default gateway on a distant subnet
- The router learned 203.0.113.9 from a directly adjacent BGP neighbor
- Loopback interfaces can contribute routes only when running RIP
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The L code in Cisco IOS IPv4 routing output denotes a local host route for an address assigned to the router itself. Here 203.0.113.9/32 belongs to Loopback1, so packets for that exact address are intended for local processing rather than forwarding to a neighbor as a remote subnet. A corresponding connected prefix may also appear depending on interface configuration. The /32 is the specific local identity, not evidence of a dynamically learned route.
Incorrect Answers
B:A static default gateway would normally be represented by a route to 0.0.0.0/0 or an appropriate gateway configuration, not by an L /32 entry for a loopback address. The address 203.0.113.9 is owned locally according to the route code, and Loopback1 names the associated interface. A distant default next hop would use different route information. The displayed local host route therefore cannot be interpreted as an upstream catchall gateway.
C:BGP-learned routes have their own IOS route codes and attributes and are not identified merely by the presence of a /32 destination. The L code specifically records a local address configured on the router. A Loopback1 interface is a logical local interface, not proof of an adjacent BGP peer. Even if BGP later advertises the loopback into a routing domain, that would not change what the local L entry means.
D:A loopback interface can contribute local and connected routing-table entries through its own configured address when the interface is operational; it does not require RIP to be active. RIP is an independent distance-vector routing protocol that may advertise reachable prefixes under suitable policy. The question shows an L route bound to Loopback1, which comes from the router's own address assignment. Requiring RIP would confuse local interface routing state with dynamic route advertisement.