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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 20

Question 190

A managed corporate WLAN uses individual employee identities checked through a backend authentication server. Which security model best matches this design?

  1. WPA2-Personal using one identical PSK on all clients
  2. WPA2-Enterprise using 802.1X and an authentication server
  3. An open WLAN with no link-layer authentication
  4. WPA with WEP static shared keys

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication with an EAP method and a backend authentication service, commonly RADIUS, to validate individual employee identities. This supports per-user access decisions, credential lifecycle and auditability rather than distributing a shared WLAN passphrase to every workstation. Correct certificate validation and secure EAP method selection are important for preventing rogue authentication-server attacks. The WLAN and clients must support compatible enterprise security settings to complete protected association.

Incorrect Answers

A:

WPA2-Personal normally uses a shared pre-shared key or passphrase for access to a WLAN. Although it encrypts traffic when properly configured, one common PSK does not independently authenticate each employee against a backend identity database. Revoking one user's access may require changing the shared credential for everyone, which is operationally awkward. The scenario specifically calls for distinct employee identities and central authentication, making an enterprise EAP/802.1X design more appropriate.

C:

An open WLAN can allow associations without link-layer user authentication, depending on access policy, and cannot satisfy the stated requirement to validate individual corporate employee accounts through a backend authentication service. A captive portal may add a separate application-layer step, but that is not equivalent to WPA2-Enterprise 802.1X integration. The requirement is for a managed corporate wireless security model, so choosing no link-layer authentication would weaken the expected assurance.

D:

WEP uses outdated encryption and weak keying mechanisms that are unsuitable for a modern managed corporate WLAN. Static shared keys also do not provide the required individual employee identity checks through a central authentication service. Its historical presence in legacy wireless standards is not a reason to deploy it when WPA2-Enterprise is available. Use enterprise 802.1X/EAP with modern supported ciphers and appropriate certificate-based trust instead.

Question 191

The primary OSPF route to 172.22.0.0/16 disappears during an upstream failure. A correctly configured floating static for that identical /16 has AD 180 and a reachable alternative next hop. What should occur?

  1. The router must wait until the OSPF adjacency returns before forwarding
  2. The router changes the /16 mask to /0 automatically
  3. The floating static can become installed and carry the matching /16 traffic
  4. The configured static is deleted as soon as OSPF fails

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

When the healthy OSPF route to 172.22.0.0/16 disappears, its administrative distance of 110 no longer competes for that prefix. The configured static backup at distance 180 can then become eligible for installation if its alternate next hop resolves. Traffic to the /16 can continue through that path, subject to failover and convergence. This is the operational reason for choosing a floating distance higher than the primary protocol's normal distance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A correctly configured floating static route is intended to provide reachability when a more-preferred dynamic route disappears. The router does not need to wait for OSPF to recover before using a valid backup with a reachable next hop. If both the primary and backup failed, traffic could still be lost, but the question explicitly says the alternate path is healthy. Holding traffic until the original neighbor returns would defeat the purpose of the floating static.

B:

A floating static route keeps the destination prefix defined in its configuration; IOS does not automatically broaden 172.22.0.0/16 into 0.0.0.0/0 when OSPF fails. A /0 default would match many unrelated destinations and is a separate routing intent. The backup is for the identical /16, so only destinations matching that prefix should use the alternate next hop. Prefix length and administrative distance are independent aspects of route selection.

D:

A static route remains in the router's configured state until an operator or management system removes it; OSPF failure does not automatically delete the backup command. Its high administrative distance previously kept it less preferred than the dynamic route, but does not make it temporary configuration. Once the primary prefix is withdrawn, the static can become active. Assuming deletion on failure would invert the intended redundancy mechanism and leave the router without backup reachability.

Question 192

A security review requires the switch to stop advertising Cisco discovery details toward a public lobby jack while retaining CDP on internal uplinks. Which interface command is appropriate?

  1. no cdp run
  2. no cdp enable
  3. no lldp run
  4. shutdown

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

no cdp enable under the lobby-facing interface disables Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements and reception for that specific port on supported IOS switches. Internal uplinks can continue participating in CDP under their unchanged configuration. This directly limits disclosure of neighboring Cisco device information at an untrusted public jack without disabling discovery everywhere. Verify the port's CDP state and consider other exposed discovery protocols separately where required by policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

no cdp run is a global Cisco Discovery Protocol disable command, which suppresses CDP across the entire device where applicable. The security team wants to stop advertisements on only the lobby-facing interface while keeping discovery on internal uplinks. A global disable would meet a broader exposure-reduction objective but discard useful internal topology visibility unnecessarily. Apply the per-interface control so the change is restricted to the untrusted jack.

C:

no lldp run is the global disable command for Link Layer Discovery Protocol, a different standards-based neighbor-discovery mechanism. It neither targets only the public lobby interface nor specifically suppresses Cisco CDP information when CDP remains enabled. A secure design may also review LLDP on untrusted ports, but the stated requirement is to retain CDP internally while stopping it on one jack. Use CDP's interface-specific command rather than an LLDP global setting.

D:

shutdown administratively disables the Ethernet interface and prevents all user traffic, not only discovery advertisements. That may be appropriate for a decommissioned port, but the scenario implies a lobby jack that should remain available for its intended service. The operator wants to suppress Cisco discovery details while retaining other connectivity. A targeted no cdp enable configuration addresses the information disclosure without disabling the entire physical access port.

Question 193

A switch receives a known unicast frame for a MAC learned on Gi1/0/10, with ingress Gi1/0/4 in the same VLAN. What is the normal forwarding choice?

  1. Flood this known unicast to every eligible port in VLAN 10
  2. Send the frame back out ingress Gi1/0/4 because the source device already knows that port
  3. Forward the known-unicast frame only toward the learned destination port
  4. Discard the frame because a known MAC address is forbidden as a destination

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A Layer 2 switch consults the destination MAC in the applicable VLAN forwarding database. Since the destination is known on Gi1/0/10 and the frame arrived on Gi1/0/4, normal unicast switching sends it only out the learned destination port, subject to port state and policies. The source MAC may also be refreshed on ingress. This differs from unknown-unicast flooding, which is used when the destination has no learned forwarding entry.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Flooding unknown-unicast traffic within a VLAN is normal when a switch has not learned the destination MAC address. Here the destination MAC is already learned on Gi1/0/10, so the switch has a specific egress port and should not replicate the frame to every eligible interface. Unnecessary flooding would waste bandwidth and expose traffic more broadly than required. The correct behavior uses the existing forwarding database entry for this VLAN.

B:

The ingress port Gi1/0/4 identifies where the frame arrived and typically helps the switch learn its source MAC. It is not automatically the appropriate egress for a different known destination. Sending the frame back toward the sender without a matching destination lookup would fail normal unicast switching. The MAC table already maps the destination to Gi1/0/10, so the switch has no reason to reflexively use the arrival port.

D:

A known destination MAC is precisely what allows a switch to make a targeted unicast forwarding decision. It is not a forbidden destination merely because an entry exists in the forwarding table. A frame could still be discarded by security, VLAN mismatch or other policy, but no such restriction is described. The stated normal path is to send toward Gi1/0/10 rather than drop a valid frame with a learned recipient.

Question 194

A technician needs the OSPFv2 network type, interface state, current designated router and interface timers for Gi0/0. Which verification command is appropriate?

  1. show ip route
  2. show ip ospf interface GigabitEthernet0/0
  3. show vlan brief
  4. show ip arp

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

show ip ospf interface GigabitEthernet0/0 reports detailed OSPFv2 operational information for that interface, typically including area, network type, timers, interface state and designated/backup designated router details when applicable. It directly addresses the technician's need to inspect why neighbors behave as they do on Gi0/0. Use the output alongside show ip ospf neighbor if adjacency state also needs confirmation. Interface-specific OSPF diagnostics are preferable to unrelated VLAN or ARP summaries for this task.

Incorrect Answers

A:

show ip route displays installed IPv4 destination prefixes, route sources and next-hop information. It can confirm whether OSPF learned a network, but usually does not present one interface's OSPF network type, Hello/Dead timers or designated-router election data. The question asks for detailed adjacency-environment parameters on Gi0/0 rather than just a learned route. The route table is a useful secondary check, not the most direct interface diagnostic.

C:

show vlan brief summarizes Layer 2 VLAN IDs and assigned access ports on supported Catalyst switches. It does not describe OSPF timers, interface network type or DR/BDR state on a routed router interface. VLAN membership can affect Ethernet connectivity but does not replace OSPF protocol inspection. The operator has already identified the OSPF process and interface, so an OSPF-specific show command provides much more direct evidence for the requested fields.

D:

show ip arp displays IPv4-to-MAC neighbor entries used to encapsulate traffic on attached Ethernet segments. That can reveal whether an OSPF peer's next-hop address resolves at Layer 2, but ARP output does not report the OSPF network type or neighbor election timers. A healthy ARP entry alone cannot prove matching OSPF Hello or Dead intervals. The required information is maintained by the OSPF process and should be retrieved through its interface diagnostics.

Question 195

An administrator runs an Ansible configuration playbook twice against unchanged switches. Why is idempotent module behavior desirable?

  1. The second run should leave already-correct settings unchanged
  2. The second run must reverse every first-run configuration change
  3. The second run should delete inventory entries after applying changes
  4. The second run should randomize interface addressing for security

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An idempotent configuration operation converges toward the desired state, so running the same Ansible playbook against a device that already matches should not generate additional changes. This reduces accidental drift, unnecessary interface flaps and repeated disruption during routine automation. Module implementation and device support matter; a script that blindly appends duplicate commands may not be idempotent. The engineer should inspect task changed-status output and test modules before using the workflow broadly.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Automatically reversing every change on a second playbook run would make the network oscillate between desired and undesired configurations. Idempotence means repeated application of the same intent produces the same final state, not that it alternates outcomes. Rollback is a separate explicitly requested operation. A second execution should normally confirm compliance and leave correct settings in place, allowing operators to run remediation safely without unexpected reversals.

C:

Ansible inventory identifies managed hosts and their connection details or group membership. Idempotent module behavior does not require deleting that inventory after configuration; it remains necessary for future verification and safe repeat runs. Removing entries would instead reduce management visibility and could prevent subsequent playbooks from reaching the devices. The goal is stability of configured state, not destruction of the set of devices being managed.

D:

Randomizing interface IPv4 addresses every time a playbook executes would destroy repeatability and can break routing, ACLs or neighbor reachability. Idempotence demands convergence to one specified intended address configuration rather than generation of new values on each run. Security should be achieved through controlled access, configuration review and appropriate segmentation, not nondeterministic network identity changes. The second run should recognize that already-compliant interfaces need no changes.

Question 196

A network operator is checking whether router BR1 has synchronized its system clock rather than merely having an NTP server address configured. Which command should the operator inspect?

  1. show ntp status
  2. show ip route
  3. show logging
  4. show interfaces status

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

show ntp status reports the current NTP synchronization state on an IOS router, including whether the clock is synchronized and related source/stratum information. This distinguishes a configured server line from an actually working time relationship. A router can list a time source but still be unsynchronized because of reachability or policy issues. Verify status first and inspect associations or packets if synchronization is not achieved.

Incorrect Answers

B:

show ip route displays IPv4 forwarding prefixes and their next hops. It may help troubleshoot whether an NTP server's address is reachable, but it does not report if the device clock has synchronized to that server. A route to the NTP address is only one prerequisite. The question asks for the current time-protocol state, which is presented by the NTP-specific status command rather than the IP route table.

C:

show logging reports stored or buffered system messages, possibly including timestamped NTP events. Those messages can provide clues about previous synchronization failures, but the log is not the primary current-state display showing whether the router considers itself synchronized now. Old messages may remain after conditions change. Use show ntp status for the present operational condition, and then consult logs as supporting historical evidence.

D:

show interfaces status reports Ethernet link and port characteristics on platforms that support it. It can confirm a physical path used to reach a time server, but does not evaluate the router's NTP clock-selection algorithm or synchronization state. A port can be up while UDP 123 traffic is filtered or the time source is invalid. The operator must inspect NTP status directly rather than equating network link health with correct system time.

Question 197

A WLAN named Visitors authenticates correctly with WPA2-PSK, but clients obtain addresses from the internal employee VLAN instead of the guest network. Which GUI mapping should the administrator review?

  1. The NTP reference clock stratum for access points
  2. The software version of every client browser
  3. The PSK passphrase length alone
  4. The WLAN-to-dynamic-interface or VLAN assignment on the controller

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The WLAN-to-dynamic-interface or VLAN policy mapping on the wireless controller determines which wired subnet carries associated clients in supported designs. If Visitors is mapped to the internal employee VLAN, clients can authenticate successfully yet receive addresses from the wrong DHCP scope. Correct the guest mapping and verify the associated trunk, policy profile and DHCP path. Authentication success and data segmentation are separate checks, and this scenario isolates a segmentation error after joining.

Incorrect Answers

A:

NTP stratum reflects the time-source hierarchy for clock synchronization; it does not assign successful WLAN clients to an IPv4 broadcast domain. The APs can have perfectly synchronized clocks while a controller policy maps guest users into the employee VLAN. The reported issue is successful authentication followed by an incorrect data-path VLAN, not a timestamp problem. Inspect the WLAN policy/interface mapping and associated wired VLAN transport instead of changing time service settings.

B:

Browser software versions are application-layer properties of client devices and are not normally what determines their VLAN assignment after WPA2-Personal authentication. A mobile phone or laptop can join the same SSID regardless of which web browser is installed. The problem consistently affects the selected network segment, pointing to the controller's wireless-to-wired policy mapping. Browser compatibility becomes relevant only after basic IP connectivity and correct client VLAN placement exist.

C:

The WPA2-PSK passphrase participates in client authentication and key derivation for the Visitors WLAN. The prompt states clients authenticate correctly, which reduces suspicion of a credential mismatch. Passphrase length alone cannot instruct the controller to place user traffic into guest versus employee VLANs. A wrong password would typically block association rather than produce a valid connection with an incorrect IP pool. Review the client's assigned VLAN or dynamic interface after successful authentication.

Question 198

Two Gigabit interfaces are intended to join LACP group 3, but one is configured as a trunk allowing VLANs 10 and 20 and the other as an access port in VLAN 10. Why is this mismatch problematic?

  1. Their switchport modes and VLAN characteristics are inconsistent
  2. The two interfaces must have different IP default gateways
  3. LACP can form only over fiber, not copper Gigabit Ethernet
  4. A trunk can carry VLAN 10 only when OSPF is enabled

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

LACP EtherChannel members must have compatible Layer 2 mode and VLAN attributes when forming a switched bundle. One interface set as a trunk allowing VLANs 10 and 20 and another configured as an access port in VLAN 10 do not describe equivalent forwarding behavior. The mismatch can prevent bundling or place a member into a suspended state. Align switchport mode, trunk/native/allowed VLANs and other supported member properties before verifying aggregation with EtherChannel summary output.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An EtherChannel groups multiple physical Ethernet links into one logical interface and does not require each member to have a different default gateway. For a Layer 2 channel, IP gateways are unrelated to individual physical member ports. For a routed channel, any IP address belongs on the logical Port-channel interface rather than different gateways on every member. The actual incompatibility in the question is access versus trunk switchport mode and associated VLAN settings.

C:

LACP can negotiate aggregation over compatible Ethernet media, including copper Gigabit interfaces when both devices and ports support the necessary mode. It is not a fiber-only protocol. Copper pair quality and interface negotiation still matter, but the fact that the links are Gigabit Ethernet does not prohibit an LACP bundle. The mismatch described is in software switchport characteristics, so correct the access/trunk configuration before blaming the physical medium.

D:

VLAN 10 can be carried on an 802.1Q trunk through the configured allowed-VLAN list and matching peer settings without enabling OSPF. OSPF computes Layer 3 routes and has no role in whether a trunk can transport a tagged VLAN. The problem is that two prospective EtherChannel members have inconsistent Layer 2 roles. Aligning those roles is necessary; starting a routing protocol would not correct the bundle compatibility failure.

Question 199

A company must deny traffic to known malicious application categories even when several applications share TCP port 443. Which network device function is most suitable?

  1. Deny TCP destination port 443 on a basic port ACL without inspecting application identity
  2. Filter source MAC addresses on a Layer 2 switch to identify each application inside HTTPS
  3. Increase the switch MAC address-table capacity to create a separate entry for each HTTPS application
  4. A next-generation firewall applies application-aware security policy

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A next-generation firewall can apply application-aware rules based on supported identification engines and policy, allowing it to distinguish categories even when flows share common transport ports such as TCP 443. This supports selectively blocking identified malicious applications while retaining authorized services. Effective classification may require TLS inspection, endpoint context or other signals and is not guaranteed for every encrypted flow. The design should validate visibility and privacy constraints rather than relying on a port-only ACL.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A basic Layer 3/4 ACL that blocks every TCP connection to destination port 443 cannot distinguish malicious applications from permitted business services that share HTTPS transport. It would deny the entire port class and potentially disrupt legitimate users. ACLs remain useful for source, destination and port-based controls, but the requirement is application category recognition even when the transport number matches. That requires a security engine with more detailed flow identification and policy capabilities.

B:

A Layer 2 switch can filter on MAC addresses in certain supported access-control designs, but a source MAC identifies the sending interface or endpoint, not the specific application inside an encrypted TCP 443 session. One laptop may run many allowed and forbidden applications with the same MAC. MAC-based filtering therefore cannot reliably make the requested per-application decision. The appropriate control needs application-aware inspection and policy enforcement above simple Ethernet addressing.

C:

A switch MAC-address table records where destination Ethernet addresses were learned so frames can be delivered within the proper VLAN. Increasing its capacity can help a large Layer 2 network avoid excessive unknown-unicast flooding, but does not classify HTTPS application categories. Multiple applications on the same host do not receive separate MAC entries merely because they use different services. The security team needs traffic classification at the application layer rather than a larger forwarding database.

Question 200

A preferred HSRP router remains electrically up but loses its upstream WAN path. The backup gateway still has an upstream path. Which TWO design features can make a deliberate failover possible? Choose TWO.

  1. Disable monitoring and assume a failed WAN is always equivalent to a powered-off router
  2. Configure HSRP tracking of the relevant upstream interface or reachability object
  3. Disable the backup router’s LAN VLAN interface to prevent a role change
  4. Increase the active router’s priority whenever its upstream WAN fails
  5. Use appropriate group priorities and preemption behavior so the healthy backup can take over

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

HSRP object or interface tracking allows a router to monitor the relevant upstream path and reduce its effective group priority or otherwise influence failover when that path fails. This is needed because the active router may remain healthy on the client VLAN while losing the WAN exit. Configure an appropriate tracking target and priority decrement that produces the intended state transition. Verify failure detection and recovery behavior under controlled testing rather than assuming the object reflects all possible upstream faults.

E:

Appropriate HSRP priorities and preemption policy let a healthy backup take over the shared virtual gateway after the preferred router's tracked WAN failure reduces its effective priority. The exact transition depends on timers, configured tracking decrements and supported preemption behavior, so test the design under realistic failures. Clients continue using the virtual IP while forwarding moves to the router that still has upstream reachability. This complements tracking rather than replacing the health signal itself.

Incorrect Answers

A:

If an HSRP active router remains powered on and its LAN interface is operational, an upstream WAN outage may not automatically make it surrender its virtual gateway role. Without appropriate tracking, clients could continue sending to a gateway whose outside path is broken. Treating every WAN fault as an automatic chassis failure is unsafe. The design needs an explicit health signal and role preference changes tied to that upstream failure condition.

C:

Shutting down the backup router's client-facing LAN interface would prevent it from receiving or forwarding traffic for the shared virtual gateway when takeover is needed. That directly undermines the purpose of gateway redundancy. The backup should maintain a healthy client-side interface and upstream path, with group role changes controlled by tracking and priority policy. A standby role does not require disabling its physical VLAN attachment or severing access to the client subnet.

D:

Increasing the failed active router's HSRP priority would make it more likely to retain the virtual gateway role despite having lost its WAN path. That reverses the intended reaction and could blackhole client traffic. Tracking should cause an appropriate reduction in active preference when upstream health deteriorates. Priority values and preemption need to be coordinated across peers so the healthy backup can assume service rather than the impaired router continuing to win the election.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests