Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 21
Question 200
A preferred HSRP router remains electrically up but loses its upstream WAN path. The backup gateway still has an upstream path. Which TWO design features can make a deliberate failover possible? Choose TWO.
- Disable monitoring and assume a failed WAN is always equivalent to a powered-off router
- Configure HSRP tracking of the relevant upstream interface or reachability object
- Disable the backup router’s LAN VLAN interface to prevent a role change
- Increase the active router’s priority whenever its upstream WAN fails
- Use appropriate group priorities and preemption behavior so the healthy backup can take over
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:HSRP object or interface tracking allows a router to monitor the relevant upstream path and reduce its effective group priority or otherwise influence failover when that path fails. This is needed because the active router may remain healthy on the client VLAN while losing the WAN exit. Configure an appropriate tracking target and priority decrement that produces the intended state transition. Verify failure detection and recovery behavior under controlled testing rather than assuming the object reflects all possible upstream faults.
E:Appropriate HSRP priorities and preemption policy let a healthy backup take over the shared virtual gateway after the preferred router's tracked WAN failure reduces its effective priority. The exact transition depends on timers, configured tracking decrements and supported preemption behavior, so test the design under realistic failures. Clients continue using the virtual IP while forwarding moves to the router that still has upstream reachability. This complements tracking rather than replacing the health signal itself.
Incorrect Answers
A:If an HSRP active router remains powered on and its LAN interface is operational, an upstream WAN outage may not automatically make it surrender its virtual gateway role. Without appropriate tracking, clients could continue sending to a gateway whose outside path is broken. Treating every WAN fault as an automatic chassis failure is unsafe. The design needs an explicit health signal and role preference changes tied to that upstream failure condition.
C:Shutting down the backup router's client-facing LAN interface would prevent it from receiving or forwarding traffic for the shared virtual gateway when takeover is needed. That directly undermines the purpose of gateway redundancy. The backup should maintain a healthy client-side interface and upstream path, with group role changes controlled by tracking and priority policy. A standby role does not require disabling its physical VLAN attachment or severing access to the client subnet.
D:Increasing the failed active router's HSRP priority would make it more likely to retain the virtual gateway role despite having lost its WAN path. That reverses the intended reaction and could blackhole client traffic. Tracking should cause an appropriate reduction in active preference when upstream health deteriorates. Priority values and preemption need to be coordinated across peers so the healthy backup can assume service rather than the impaired router continuing to win the election.
Question 201
A route entry shows O 172.16.50.0/24 [110/14] via 10.10.10.6. Which number records the OSPF path metric for this destination?
- 24
- 110
- 50
- 14
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The route display O 172.16.50.0/24 [110/14] uses O for OSPF and the bracket format [administrative distance/metric]. Thus 14 is the OSPF path cost and 110 is the administrative distance. This distinction helps interpret why OSPF chooses one path among its candidates and how a competing static route might be preferred. The next-hop address determines forwarding direction; it is not itself the metric displayed here.
Incorrect Answers
A:The /24 suffix identifies the destination prefix length of 172.16.50.0/24; it is not an OSPF metric or path cost. Prefix length controls which IP destinations match the route during longest-prefix lookup. The IOS bracket pair supplies preference and protocol-specific metric separately, so treating 24 as the cost would confuse address coverage with path quality. The question specifically asks for the numeric field representing the OSPF path metric.
B:Cisco IOS bracket notation typically follows [administrative distance/metric], so 110 is the default administrative distance used to compare OSPF routes with routes learned through other sources. It does not represent the OSPF path cost shown for this entry. Administrative distance matters when multiple routing sources advertise the same prefix, while the OSPF cost is used within the selected protocol's path comparison. The cost here is the number after the slash, 14.
C:The number 50 appears in the third octet of the destination network 172.16.50.0; it identifies part of the prefix address, not a route-selection metric. A destination address can remain unchanged while OSPF costs vary with link metrics or topology. The route output also displays the next hop separately. To find the protocol metric, read the second field inside the bracket, not an incidental decimal value from the destination address.
Question 202
A redundant access switch has one root port forwarding toward the root bridge and another link offering a standby path toward that root. Under Rapid PVST+, what role is the standby link most likely to have?
- Designated port
- Backup port
- Alternate port
- Edge port
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Rapid PVST+ can designate an alternate port as a nonforwarding substitute for the root port when another link presents a valid, less-preferred path toward the root bridge. If the primary root path is lost, the alternate may transition to forwarding rapidly according to protocol state. This provides loop avoidance and redundancy at the same time. The distinction is that a standby route toward the root is alternate, whereas a backup role refers to a duplicate path to the same segment.
Incorrect Answers
A:A designated port is the forwarding representative for a particular Layer 2 segment under spanning tree and advertises the superior path toward the root on that segment. The scenario already identifies a root port on the switch and asks about a second link that provides a standby route toward the same root. That backup-to-root function is typically an alternate port, not the segment's designated forwarder. Role is determined by BPDU comparisons rather than the number of physical uplinks.
B:A backup port is a Rapid Spanning Tree role associated with redundant connectivity to the same shared segment from one switch, such as where two ports of the same bridge attach to one segment. It is different from an alternate port that offers another path toward the root bridge. The question expressly describes a second upstream root path, so alternate is the closer match. Both backup and alternate ports normally avoid forwarding until needed, but their topology meanings differ.
D:An edge port is intended for appropriate endpoint-facing connections where loops are not expected, allowing rapid transition into forwarding. The second link in the scenario connects into the redundant switching topology toward the root, not to a workstation. Treating it as an edge could undermine spanning-tree safety if incorrectly configured. The relevant role is a nonforwarding alternative root path chosen from received BPDUs, rather than a port optimized for end-host attachment.
Question 203
A home office has one ISP circuit and a handful of clients and needs gateway, NAT, firewall and Wi-Fi functions in a compact installation. What topology category best describes it?
- Deploy dedicated campus access, distribution and core tiers in the residence
- Build a data-center leaf–spine fabric with multiple routed spines and rack leaves
- A SOHO topology uses an integrated small-office gateway and local access
- Establish a metro-area provider ring with customer edge routers at multiple regional sites
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A small-office/home-office topology commonly uses a compact integrated gateway to provide ISP access, local Ethernet switching, wireless service, NAT and firewall functions for a modest number of users. That architecture directly meets the limited hardware footprint and mixed edge-services needs described. Enterprise designs may separate those roles for redundancy or scale, but the single-ISP home site does not require independent distribution and core tiers. The integrated SOHO gateway is the appropriate category.
Incorrect Answers
A:A three-tier campus uses separate access, distribution and core switching functions to support larger enterprises. Installing all three hardware tiers in a home office with a handful of endpoints and one ISP connection would add cost and complexity without meeting the requirement for a compact integrated installation. The design explicitly combines routing, NAT, firewall and wireless service in one small-site context. That aligns with SOHO architecture rather than a large-campus hierarchy.
B:Leaf-spine is a data-center fabric topology designed to scale east-west traffic between numerous server racks using regular leaf-to-spine links. A home office with one provider circuit does not present that workload, rack scale or need for several spine devices. An integrated WAN edge and local wireless service are the actual requirements. Selecting a data-center fabric would solve a different problem and vastly exceed the small deployment's scope.
D:A metropolitan provider ring interconnects multiple sites across a geographic area and often uses carrier-edge transport equipment and redundancy protocols. The question describes only one home office with a single ISP circuit, not a network of regional customer locations. A metro ring would introduce a completely different scale and ownership arrangement. The appropriate local site topology focuses on one combined edge gateway and a small collection of clients.
Question 204
An adversary could reach a lab router only after first entering the internal network. What security term describes the likelihood and impact of that compromise possibility together?
- A MAC address table
- An MTU mismatch
- Risk
- A syslog facility
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Security risk combines the likelihood or probability of a threat exploiting relevant conditions with the potential impact on assets or operations. In this case, the attacker first needs internal network access, which affects likelihood, while unauthorized router control would affect service and security, which informs consequence. The assessment may be qualitative or quantitative depending on the framework. It is distinct from the vulnerability itself, which is only one contributing factor to the overall risk.
Incorrect Answers
A:A MAC address table is a switch forwarding data structure that maps learned Ethernet destination addresses to interfaces within appropriate VLAN contexts. It does not measure the likelihood and impact of an adversary compromising a router. A MAC table might help trace network activity during investigation, but it is not a security risk-assessment term. The stem asks for a combined probability-and-consequence concept rather than a Layer 2 forwarding component.
B:An MTU mismatch concerns differences in supported frame or packet sizes along a path and can cause fragmentation, drops or performance problems. Those symptoms may be operational vulnerabilities in a broader sense, but the term itself does not express likelihood multiplied or combined with potential security impact. The scenario describes a possible unauthorized router compromise after internal access. A security program evaluates that possibility as risk, not merely as packet-sizing disagreement.
D:A syslog facility labels the origin or subsystem of an event message, such as an authentication or interface component. It helps route and filter diagnostic records, but does not provide an overall measure of compromise likelihood and impact. Logs may supply evidence used to estimate threats or detect attempted access, yet the conceptual assessment remains security risk. Choosing a log classification confuses event reporting with evaluation of a prospective attack outcome.
Question 205
A device API accepts JSON. Which snippet is a syntactically valid JSON object containing a hostname and numeric interface count?
{"hostname":"edge-a","count":3}{'hostname':'edge-a','count':3}{"hostname":"edge-a","count":3,}{hostname:"edge-a",count:3}
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:This JSON object uses double-quoted property names and the double-quoted string value edge-a, while representing the interface count as an unquoted JSON number 3. Its commas and closing braces follow standard JSON syntax, making it suitable for parsing by a conforming device API. The parser may still reject the payload if an endpoint's schema expects different field names or constraints, but syntactically the object is valid.
Incorrect Answers
B:Standard JSON requires double quotation marks around object names and string values. Single quotes may appear in other programming language literal syntaxes, such as some Python dictionary representations, but they are not valid JSON string delimiters. The device API in the question specifically accepts JSON, so sending this form can cause a parse error before any hostname or interface-count validation occurs. Use double-quoted strings as shown in the valid choice.
C:A trailing comma after the last object property is accepted by certain programming-language object literal extensions but is forbidden in strict JSON. The fields and values otherwise resemble the required structure, making this a plausible but invalid payload. A conforming JSON parser can reject it even if the API's schema would accept the same values. Remove the comma after 3 so the object closes immediately after its final property value.
D:JSON object member names must be strings enclosed in double quotes; bare identifiers such as hostname and count are not valid property syntax. JavaScript object literals can sometimes use unquoted keys, but the question calls for JSON exchanged with an API, which has stricter notation. A valid payload must quote both keys and the hostname value while leaving the numeric count unquoted. The displayed object does not meet those parsing rules.
Question 206
A DHCP client receives 192.0.2.44/24, default router 192.0.2.1, and DNS server 192.0.2.53. What does the DHCP-provided DNS server address mean?
- It tells the client which resolver to query for DNS lookups
- It is the server that must route all nonlocal IP packets
- It forces every name to resolve to 192.0.2.53
- It marks 192.0.2.53 as the network broadcast address
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:DHCP can provide a DNS resolver address as an option during client network configuration. The supplied 192.0.2.53 value tells the host where it should send ordinary DNS queries for hostname resolution, while 192.0.2.1 is its separate default IPv4 gateway. The resolver may answer from cache or query authoritative infrastructure as configured. Receiving its address does not guarantee every name exists or that DNS traffic can reach the server; those are separate operational checks.
Incorrect Answers
B:The default gateway, here 192.0.2.1, is the Layer 3 next hop for destinations outside the client's directly connected /24 subnet when no more-specific route exists. A DHCP-provided DNS server is a service endpoint used for hostname lookups, not automatically the router for every off-link packet. Both addresses may be reachable through local or routed paths, but their intended roles are distinct. Confusing them can produce both connectivity and name-resolution troubleshooting errors.
C:A DNS resolver accepts queries and returns the appropriate resource records based on its configuration, authoritative sources, cache and policy. Advertising 192.0.2.53 as the resolver does not force every queried name to resolve to that same IP address. Such behavior would require a specific DNS record or rewrite policy and would not be ordinary DHCP option semantics. The address identifies the server to ask, not the answer to every DNS question.
D:For the assigned 192.0.2.44/24 subnet, the conventional directed broadcast address is 192.0.2.255, not 192.0.2.53. DHCP option values do not turn arbitrary host addresses into network or broadcast identifiers. The /24 mask determines the subnet's network and broadcast boundaries, while the DNS option selects a resolver service. A server at.53 can be an ordinary unicast host on this network, subject to valid address assignment.
Question 207
A router must reach 2001:db8:10:20::1234. It has IPv6 routes 2001:db8::/32, 2001:db8:10::/48, and 2001:db8:10:20::/64. Which route is chosen?
- The /32, because its route describes the greatest number of IPv6 addresses
- The /48, because IPv6 always uses a /48 for routed networks
- No route, because IPv6 routes cannot overlap
- The /64 2001:db8:10:20::/64
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The IPv6 destination 2001:db8:10:20::1234 belongs to the prefix 2001:db8:10:20::/64. That /64 is longer and therefore more specific than both the /48 and /32 installed matches, so normal destination-based lookup selects it. Next-hop reachability and policy still matter for actual delivery, but the question assumes a straightforward routing comparison. This example demonstrates that prefix length, not numerical size or entry order, controls best-match forwarding.
Incorrect Answers
A:The route 2001:db8::/32 covers a broad IPv6 destination range, but routing selection does not favor the entry that matches the greatest number of addresses. It favors the most-specific installed matching prefix when normal destination-based forwarding applies. The packet also matches the /48 and /64 routes provided in the question. Those longer prefixes therefore offer more precise forwarding choices than the /32, which remains a fallback for other destinations.
B:A /48 prefix is a common allocation boundary in IPv6 network plans, but IPv6 routing is not hard-coded to select /48 entries. Routers perform longest-prefix matching just as they do for IPv4, considering all installed destination prefixes that contain the address. Here a /64 matches the exact 2001:db8:10:20:: subnet and is longer than /48. Address-planning conventions do not override an installed more-specific route during forwarding selection.
C:Overlapping IPv6 destination prefixes are legitimate, for example where a broad aggregate coexists with more-specific routes to individual segments. Routers use longest-prefix matching to decide which entry applies to a destination instead of rejecting the whole table. The question provides an address covered by /32, /48 and /64, so there is no inherent conflict. The /64 entry supplies the most-specific routing information and becomes the normal selection.
Question 208
An outdoor wireless deployment uses root and mesh AP nodes to carry traffic over radio backhaul where some APs have no direct wired uplink. Which AP mode family supports that topology?
- Monitor-only mode
- Bridge or Flex+Bridge mode
- Rogue-detector mode
- Local mode only
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Cisco bridge and Flex+Bridge modes support appropriate wireless bridging and mesh deployments in which root and remote AP nodes can carry traffic across radio backhaul links. A root AP connects toward wired infrastructure, while mesh or bridge nodes can extend connectivity without each having its own Ethernet uplink. Exact modes and capabilities depend on the AP and controller software. The defining requirement is forwarding through wireless backhaul rather than normal client-only access or rogue-device scanning.
Incorrect Answers
A:Monitor-only mode dedicates an AP to scanning and reporting RF observations, rogue devices or channel conditions on supported controllers. It is not the operational design for transporting ordinary user traffic across a wireless mesh backhaul without wired uplinks. Even if monitor-mode radios hear many access points, they do not supply the described root-to-mesh forwarding relationship. The scenario's requirement is a functioning wireless distribution path between AP nodes, not passive observation.
C:A rogue-detector AP role is used in supported designs to observe and report unauthorized wireless activity rather than serving as a transport bridge for legitimate network segments. Detecting a neighbor AP does not mean the device can carry its users' Ethernet traffic back to a root node. The question explicitly involves APs without wired uplinks that must forward traffic through a radio mesh. A bridge-oriented mode is required to implement that connectivity.
D:Local mode ordinarily serves associated wireless clients through a controller-managed WLAN, with central switching available in appropriate designs. It does not, by itself, describe a root-and-mesh radio backhaul topology that replaces wired connectivity for some APs. A Local-mode AP usually has a network uplink for controller communication and traffic forwarding. The requested architecture needs bridge or mesh capabilities rather than assuming a conventional local client AP automatically becomes a wireless distribution node.
Question 209
A technician connects a 10GBASE-SR optical module on one side and a 10GBASE-LR module on the other. The link remains down despite clean patching. What should be corrected first?
- Reverse the patch-cord transmit and receive strands while retaining mismatched SR and LR optics
- Replace only the LR-side cable with multimode fiber while keeping the SR/LR module pairing unchanged
- Change the switch native VLAN so the two optics negotiate a common optical wavelength
- Use matching optical interface standards and compatible fiber on both ends
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The optical link requires transceivers that use compatible Ethernet physical-layer standards, suitable wavelengths and fiber types at both ends. An SR module designed for short-range multimode operation cannot be treated as interchangeable with a long-range single-mode LR module. Replace or reconfigure the mismatched modules and verify supported fiber before testing link light. Correct polarity, connector cleaning and platform compatibility remain relevant after the basic transceiver mismatch has been removed.
Incorrect Answers
A:Fiber polarity matters because each endpoint's transmitter must connect to the other endpoint's receiver, but simply reversing strands cannot fix two incompatible optical module standards. 10GBASE-SR and 10GBASE-LR normally use different wavelengths and expected media. If both ends remain SR/LR, a clean polarity arrangement still fails the compatibility requirement. The link should first be designed with matching supported optics and fiber before diagnosing any residual polarity issue.
B:Changing only the LR-side fiber segment to multimode would not make the LR transceiver's wavelength and physical requirements match an SR transceiver at the far end. A complete Ethernet optical path needs compatible transceiver standards and appropriate continuous fiber. A patch change may help only after confirming both optics are designed to communicate with each other. The stem identifies a mismatched SR/LR pair, so correcting just one cable is insufficient.
C:The native VLAN setting classifies untagged Ethernet frames on a configured 802.1Q trunk. It operates above the optical physical layer and cannot alter the transmit wavelength or receiver sensitivity of an SR or LR module. A native VLAN mismatch may cause logical connectivity issues after a link comes up, but not reconcile incompatible optical standards. First establish a matched physical link, then evaluate trunk configuration if VLAN traffic still fails.
Question 210
A facilities team installs a lock on the network rack, while the SOC reviews camera footage for after-hours access. Which statement correctly compares these controls?
- Both controls are solely packet filters
- The lock mainly detects, while retained video directly blocks entry
- The lock is primarily preventive; reviewed footage is detective
- Neither requires authorized personnel to operate safely
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A rack lock is a preventive security control intended to obstruct unauthorized physical access to network equipment. Reviewing camera footage is primarily detective, helping security personnel identify after-hours entry and investigate suspicious actions. The combination offers complementary protection: one reduces opportunity while the other records and reveals possible violations. Neither mechanism is sufficient alone for all physical security risks; access policy, logging and response procedures still matter.
Incorrect Answers
A:A physical rack lock restricts entry to equipment, and a camera system records activity in a facility. Neither is primarily a packet filter that evaluates Ethernet frames or IP sessions. The lock operates on physical access while footage provides evidence for reviewing events. Network firewalls and ACLs perform logical packet filtering, which is a separate security-control category. Confusing these purposes would leave physical-access management inadequately described.
B:A mechanical lock is mainly preventive because it inhibits entry unless the person has the proper key or access mechanism. Recorded camera footage generally supports detection or investigation after or during activity, but does not physically stop someone from opening a cabinet. If the footage is reviewed, it can reveal unauthorized access and trigger response. The proposed option reverses the roles and attributes a blocking capability to video recording alone.
D:Authorized personnel must maintain locks, issue or revoke keys and review camera recordings under controlled access and retention policies. An unmanaged lock can become a recovery obstacle, while unchecked camera footage may never reveal an incident. The scenario explicitly has a facilities team and SOC performing these functions. Both controls require secure operation and governance even though one is preventive and the other supports detection. Their existence does not remove the need for responsible administrators.