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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 19

Question 180

A campus team assumes that configuring HSRP between two VLAN gateway routers also guarantees application uptime when the shared database server itself fails. Which explanation identifies the design limitation?

  1. HSRP can preserve a default-gateway endpoint but cannot replace application or server failover mechanisms
  2. HSRP replicates database disks across routers as part of its hello messages
  3. HSRP forces every client to send directly to the server without using routing
  4. HSRP is a Layer 1 optical redundancy technology that repairs fiber breaks automatically

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

HSRP supplies first-hop redundancy by allowing multiple routers to present a stable virtual default-gateway address and move the active forwarding role after a gateway failure. It cannot replicate application databases, restart a failed server or ensure service-level recovery when the destination itself is unavailable. A full availability design therefore needs separate server, storage and application failover mechanisms. The question identifies that gateway resilience and application resilience protect different failure domains.

Incorrect Answers

B:

HSRP Hello messages coordinate router roles and failure detection in a virtual-gateway group. They do not carry database disk blocks or automatically synchronize the contents of a shared application server. Even if gateways remain healthy, a failed database backend would still interrupt dependent applications without their own resilience. Database replication or clustered service technology must be designed independently. Interpreting HSRP as a data-storage mirroring protocol confuses two unrelated high-availability layers.

C:

End-user hosts generally continue sending off-subnet traffic to their configured default gateway, represented by the HSRP virtual IP. HSRP does not force every client to bypass routing and send directly to servers on other subnets. The gateway handles forwarding as normal, while the virtual identity enables router-role failover. Application availability still depends on whether the destination and services are reachable; changing the gateway mechanism cannot make a dead database respond.

D:

HSRP operates as a Layer 3 first-hop redundancy arrangement with control messages and virtual IP/MAC behavior. It does not provide optical light, heal damaged fiber or directly replace physical transceiver redundancy. A router may lose an upstream fiber path and trigger failover when suitable tracking is configured, but that is a response to a link fault, not repair of the cable. The described server failure remains outside HSRP's responsibilities.

Question 181

A router-on-a-stick link must serve IPv4 gateways for VLANs 10 and 20 through one physical router interface. Which configuration approach is correct?

  1. Assign both VLAN gateway IPv4 addresses directly to the physical interface with no VLAN tagging
  2. Configure the switch trunk as an access port in VLAN 10 so the router sees both VLANs
  3. Create separate routed router subinterfaces with matching 802.1Q VLAN tags and gateway addresses
  4. Enable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the router and let it create gateways automatically

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Router-on-a-stick creates a separate routed subinterface for each VLAN on one physical Ethernet uplink. Each subinterface applies encapsulation dot1Q with the corresponding VLAN ID and carries the IPv4 gateway address for that VLAN's subnet; the adjoining switchport is a compatible trunk. This lets the router forward between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 while preserving their Layer 2 separation. Verify unique gateway subnets, tagging alignment and trunk permitted VLANs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A physical router interface can have IPv4 addressing, but placing two distinct VLAN gateway addresses directly on it without VLAN subinterfaces does not establish the necessary 802.1Q separation. Frames tagged for VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 must be associated with the correct logical routed contexts. A router-on-a-stick design normally uses one physical trunk and separate subinterfaces with tag identifiers and subnet-specific gateway addresses, rather than assuming the physical port alone differentiates every VLAN.

B:

An access switchport carries ordinary untagged data in one configured VLAN rather than exposing multiple VLANs over the same router uplink. Converting the switch-to-router link to access VLAN 10 would deprive VLAN 20 of its expected tagged connection. Router-on-a-stick requires a trunk carrying both VLANs and matching encapsulation on the router. An access-port design can serve one subnet gateway but does not meet the two-VLAN requirement stated here.

D:

Cisco Discovery Protocol advertises device and interface details to supported nearby equipment. It does not generate IP subinterfaces, allocate gateway addresses or establish 802.1Q encapsulation automatically when enabled. Knowing a neighbor's identity is useful for cable inventory but cannot replace the explicit router-on-a-stick configuration. The operator must configure router subinterfaces and switch trunking; CDP can help verify adjacency but does not perform routing design or interface creation.

Question 182

Cisco IOS displays R 10.64.0.0/16 [120/2] via 192.0.2.6. Which routing protocol supplied this installed network route?

  1. OSPFv2, because all dynamic routes have the R code
  2. EIGRP, because its internal administrative distance is 90
  3. RIP, because IOS uses R to identify routes learned through RIP
  4. A directly connected interface, because the route includes a next-hop IP

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

In Cisco IOS routing-table output, the R code identifies a route learned through Routing Information Protocol. The bracket [120/2] is also consistent with RIP's default administrative distance of 120 and hop-count metric 2. The next hop 192.0.2.6 is where packets will be directed for the destination prefix. The route was learned dynamically rather than being a connected or static prefix, but the R code specifies RIP in particular.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cisco IOS uses an O code for standard OSPF-learned routes, with related OSPF-specific variations depending on route type. The visible route begins with R instead, so labeling it OSPF would contradict the routing-table source code. Administrative distance and metrics offer additional context, but the first identifying clue is the route letter. The question tests IOS code interpretation, not simply whether a route was learned dynamically from some protocol.

B:

EIGRP commonly uses D as the IOS route code for internal routes and has a default internal administrative distance of 90. The entry shows code R with bracketed distance 120, which matches RIP rather than EIGRP. Although both protocols can advertise the same destination prefix through different networks, their installed route symbols and typical distance values differ. Do not infer EIGRP merely because the route has an IP next hop.

D:

Directly connected IPv4 prefixes normally appear with the C code in IOS route output, and an address owned by the router may have an L host route. A via next-hop notation can occur with several learned or static routes and does not make a network connected merely because the next hop is reachable. This entry's R code expressly identifies RIP. A reachable next hop does not make the destination connected.

Question 183

Visitors see a wireless network name advertised by nearby access points. What is the purpose of that WLAN value?

  1. An SSID identifies the wireless LAN service advertised to stations
  2. The SSID is the shared secret used to encrypt 802.11 traffic
  3. The SSID is the Ethernet VLAN tag a wireless station inserts into every transmitted frame
  4. The SSID is the radio-frequency channel number used by all nearby APs

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An SSID, or Service Set Identifier, is the name used to identify a wireless LAN service to stations during discovery and association. Access points can advertise it in management frames, enabling compatible client devices to select the intended WLAN. A visible SSID is not proof of authorization or encryption; the security policy and authentication method are configured separately. Multiple APs may present the same SSID for a coordinated enterprise wireless service.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The wireless network's shared secret or keying material belongs to the configured security method, such as WPA2-Personal or WPA3-Personal, rather than being the SSID itself. An SSID is normally advertised for client discovery and cannot safely be treated as a confidential password. The SSID may participate as an input to some key-derivation contexts, but it does not substitute for an authorized passphrase or enterprise credentials. The prompt asks for the publicly visible network name.

C:

An 802.1Q VLAN tag identifies a wired Layer 2 broadcast domain and is handled by compatible Ethernet trunks. An ordinary wireless station does not insert the SSID as an Ethernet VLAN number into each over-the-air 802.11 frame. A controller may map associated clients from a particular SSID to a wired VLAN, but that mapping is a separate policy choice. The SSID identifies the wireless service; it does not itself encode a required VLAN tag.

D:

A radio-frequency channel identifies an RF segment on which an AP transmits under the relevant band and channel plan. The SSID is an independent logical service identifier that may be broadcast by APs on different channels across a campus. Clients can roam among APs advertising the same SSID while radio channels change. Confusing the network name with the physical frequency would make it impossible to model normal multichannel enterprise WLAN deployment.

Question 184

An organization uses centralized AAA for Cisco infrastructure rather than maintaining every operator password independently on each device. Which TWO benefits can be achieved by appropriate centralized policy? Choose TWO.

  1. Revoke a departed engineer centrally instead of visiting each managed device
  2. Remove the need for protected management transport entirely
  3. Make every verified user automatically authorized for all commands
  4. Guarantee that network devices operate without an AAA server outage under all conditions
  5. Apply consistent role or command policies and collect centrally attributable records

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Centralized AAA can let an organization disable or remove a departed engineer's access in one identity and policy system rather than manually changing separate local accounts on every router and switch. Devices must be configured to use that authority, with appropriately controlled fallback behavior. Central revocation helps reduce stale privilege and improves account lifecycle consistency. It does not by itself solve all security needs, but it directly addresses the former employee's access across the managed fleet.

E:

Central AAA supports consistent role or command authorization policies across many devices and can associate login and command-accounting records with individual administrators. On suitable platforms, TACACS+ offers detailed command authorization while logging aids investigation and change attribution. Proper device configuration and time synchronization are still needed for reliable records. This benefit complements centralized account revocation by ensuring that authorized users receive appropriate privileges and their actions remain auditable.

Incorrect Answers

B:

AAA authenticates identities and makes authorization decisions; it does not provide encryption for every remote management session by itself. An administrator could authenticate through a secure central service yet still expose CLI traffic if Telnet were used instead of SSH. Protected transport, certificates or keys and management-plane network restrictions remain separately important. The request asks for benefits of centrally enforcing identity and role policy, not eliminating secure communication requirements.

C:

Authentication proves that a user presented valid credentials, while authorization determines which tasks and commands that identity may perform. Central AAA is specifically useful for enforcing different roles, not automatically giving all verified people administrator privileges. Treating any valid login as unrestricted access would defeat least privilege and create audit risk. Central policy can instead grant narrowly scoped commands to operators, with broader authority reserved for those whose duties require it.

D:

A centralized AAA service can become unreachable because of network or server failures, so device access availability still needs a deliberate and protected recovery design. Appropriate local fallback accounts and resilient AAA architecture can reduce outage risk, but no policy guarantees perfect access under every condition. The option's unconditional promise is false. Central management improves consistency, while engineering must separately address dependencies and emergency access without opening permissive bypasses.

Question 185

A controller resource represents an editable network policy. The client needs to modify only its description field without replacing other fields. Which HTTP method commonly fits this partial update?

  1. GET
  2. DELETE
  3. PATCH
  4. HEAD

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

PATCH conventionally expresses a partial update to a resource, such as changing only the description field of an existing network policy. A correctly implemented API can apply the supplied patch document while retaining unspecified fields. The client must follow that controller's documented patch format, validation rules, authentication and concurrency controls, because support varies by endpoint. The requested behavior is different from PUT-style complete replacement or GET read-only retrieval.

Incorrect Answers

A:

HTTP GET retrieves an existing resource representation and is conventionally safe and read-only. It can list network policies or inspect the description currently stored on a controller, but is not the ordinary verb for requesting a change to one field. The user wants to modify the description while preserving all other properties. A partial-update method expresses that intent more directly and avoids confusing observation with mutation.

B:

DELETE requests removal of a resource identified by its URL, rather than editing one attribute of an otherwise retained network policy. Issuing it could eliminate a configuration object if authorization and API rules allowed it. The requirement explicitly says that all fields other than the description should remain untouched. Deleting the entire policy is destructive and incompatible with a narrow update; the operator should use a supported partial-update operation instead.

D:

HEAD requests metadata headers for a resource without returning the ordinary representation body. It is useful for checking resource existence, caching information or server properties where supported, but does not conventionally modify stored policy fields. The user needs to change an editable description through an authorized write operation. Inspecting HTTP headers alone cannot provide the specified update; use the controller's documented partial update semantics.

Question 186

A router has an inside VLAN interface for 10.30.0.0/24 and an uplink facing the provider. Which TWO interface-role commands must be configured so an inside-source NAT policy applies in the intended direction? Choose TWO.

  1. Place ip nat inside under the internal VLAN interface
  2. Place ip nat outside under the internal VLAN interface
  3. Place ip nat inside under both interfaces
  4. Place ip nat outside under the provider-facing uplink
  5. Use ip default-gateway on the internal VLAN interface

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

ip nat inside must be applied under the internal VLAN-facing Layer 3 interface so IOS knows packets from 10.30.0.0/24 originate on the inside side of the translation policy. This interface-role designation is distinct from defining the actual NAT source rule. The inside subnet can still route to other networks according to policy, but its translation direction depends on correct interface classification. Pair the inside setting with an outside designation on the provider-facing uplink.

D:

ip nat outside belongs under the provider-facing routed uplink to identify the external side of the inside-source translation boundary. Combined with ip nat inside on the internal VLAN interface, it gives IOS the directional context for matching the intended source NAT rule. Routing, ACLs, public address selection and the NAT policy itself still need correct configuration. The question asks only for the two interface-role commands, not the whole translation rule.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Marking the internal VLAN interface as ip nat outside would reverse the direction expected for a conventional inside-source NAT design. It could prevent the desired inside host addresses from being translated correctly on egress. The option uses a valid command but puts it on the wrong side of the boundary. The given 10.30.0.0/24 VLAN is the protected internal network, so its corresponding IOS role is inside rather than outside.

C:

Setting both interfaces as ip nat inside provides no provider-facing outside boundary for the ordinary inside-to-outside translation policy described. NAT requires the relevant directions and an applicable source translation rule; simply classifying every side as inside is not equivalent to enabling all forwarding. Some advanced designs use different arrangements, but they are outside this explicit inside VLAN and provider uplink case. Configure the internal interface inside and the uplink outside.

E:

ip default-gateway is not the interface-role command used to mark NAT inside or outside on a routing-enabled IOS device. Default routing and NAT address translation solve different problems: one chooses a next hop, while the other rewrites eligible packet addresses. A router may need an upstream default route, but configuring that route cannot replace ip nat inside or ip nat outside assignments. The proposed interface command is therefore irrelevant to the directional NAT requirement.

Question 187

R1 has an installed static route to 198.51.100.0/24 through next hop 192.0.2.2. Its route table shows 192.0.2.0/24 as directly connected on GigabitEthernet0/1; neighbor 192.0.2.2 is reachable, and no policy route overrides normal forwarding. When R1 forwards traffic toward 198.51.100.50, which interface does next-hop resolution select?

  1. GigabitEthernet0/1, because next hop 192.0.2.2 resolves across that directly connected network
  2. Null0, because the destination subnet 198.51.100.0/24 is not connected locally
  3. The incoming interface, because static routing always returns packets to their arrival port
  4. A random interface, because a next-hop-only static route cannot be resolved through a connected route

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

R1's static route points to next hop 192.0.2.2 for the remote destination 198.51.100.0/24. It resolves that next hop using its installed connected 192.0.2.0/24 prefix on GigabitEthernet0/1, so that interface becomes the egress. Ethernet neighbor resolution supplies the corresponding next-hop MAC if needed. The router does not require the ultimate destination prefix to be connected locally; the connected route to the gateway is sufficient.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Null0 is a discard interface often used for deliberate sink routes or aggregate-routing safeguards. The presence of a remote static destination does not inherently cause traffic to be discarded there. Here the static's next hop is explicitly reachable through a directly connected network on GigabitEthernet0/1. There is no Null0 route or policy specified. Choosing a discard interface would ignore the valid recursive resolution path through the reachable neighbor.

C:

Destination-based forwarding normally chooses the outgoing interface from the selected route and resolved next hop, not automatically from the packet's ingress direction. Ingress and egress may occasionally be the same in a particular topology, but no such rule follows from using a static route. The given next hop 192.0.2.2 lies on Gi0/1's connected subnet, making Gi0/1 the resolved egress. Reversing direction by default would break ordinary routed traffic.

D:

A next-hop-only static route can be resolved recursively through installed connected or other eligible routes. Here the connected 192.0.2.0/24 entry provides a deterministic outgoing interface for next hop 192.0.2.2. That is a standard IOS forwarding pattern, not a reason to choose an arbitrary interface. If the next hop became unreachable, the route could become ineligible; however, the scenario explicitly states that neighbor reachability is healthy.

Question 188

An Ethernet capture from a Cisco switch-to-switch link shows an 802.1Q-tagged frame belonging to VLAN 35. Which information directly identifies its VLAN membership?

  1. The VLAN ID field in the 802.1Q tag
  2. The source TCP or UDP port number
  3. The IP time-to-live field
  4. The destination MAC address as an encoded VLAN number

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An 802.1Q header carries a VLAN Identifier field that tells a receiving switch which VLAN the tagged Ethernet frame belongs to. In this capture, that tag value is 35, so the frame is classified into VLAN 35 subject to allowed-VLAN and port policy. The tag also includes other fields such as priority information, but its 12-bit VLAN ID provides the requested membership. Untagged native-VLAN traffic uses a different handling path.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A source TCP or UDP port identifies an application or transport endpoint inside an IP packet, not the Layer 2 VLAN that carries the Ethernet frame. Multiple applications using different source ports can share the same VLAN. An 802.1Q tag is outside the network-layer payload and is evaluated by switching hardware independently of TCP/UDP headers. The question gives a captured tagged frame, so VLAN membership comes from that Ethernet tag.

C:

IPv4 time-to-live limits the number of routed hops a packet can traverse before being discarded. It is not an 802.1Q VLAN field and does not encode which broadcast domain the switch should use. A frame may carry an IPv4 packet with TTL, but the switch identifies VLAN context from port mode and VLAN tagging. Treating TTL as a VLAN ID would confuse Layer 3 route lifetime with Layer 2 segmentation.

D:

The destination MAC address identifies the intended Ethernet receiver and is used for a Layer 2 forwarding lookup within an already determined VLAN. It does not generally encode the VLAN number in its bits. The same destination MAC could appear in separate VLAN learning contexts, and normal VLAN classification occurs before or alongside the MAC-table lookup. The packet capture's VLAN 35 identification comes from the 802.1Q tag, not the destination host identity.

Question 189

One physical router must support two tenants with overlapping IPv4 prefixes, each using a separate set of routes. Which virtual construct is relevant?

  1. Use VLAN tags while keeping both tenants in the same global IPv4 routing table
  2. Install one shared static default route for both tenants and omit tenant-specific forwarding state
  3. Use one global IP access list to assign each tenant a different source address but keep one RIB
  4. VRF instances maintain independent routing and forwarding tables

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A Virtual Routing and Forwarding instance provides a separate routing and forwarding context on the same physical router. Each tenant can maintain its own connected, static or learned routes, even when another tenant uses identical IPv4 prefixes with different next hops. Interfaces and policies associate traffic with the correct VRF before route lookup. Route leaking is deliberately configured when cross-context communication is required; independent VRFs prevent unintended sharing by default.

Incorrect Answers

A:

VLAN tags create separate Layer 2 broadcast domains and can distinguish traffic on a shared trunk, but they do not create independent IPv4 routing tables by themselves. If two tenants use overlapping prefixes in one global route table, that table cannot hold contradictory tenant-specific forwarding decisions for the same destination without additional context or policy. The task expressly requires separate route sets, which is the function of a VRF rather than merely VLAN segregation.

B:

A shared default route is a single least-specific forwarding choice and cannot resolve the requirement for different tenant next hops when their destination prefixes overlap. Omitting tenant-specific state could cause leakage or wrong-path delivery between organizations. Default routes can exist inside individual routing contexts, but one global default cannot provide independent address spaces. The design needs virtual routing tables with isolated connected and learned routes for each tenant.

C:

An access list can permit or deny traffic based on configured headers and may support security separation, but a single global routing information base still selects normal destination next hops without independent tenant route tables. Changing source addresses is also not equivalent to giving each tenant its own routing context. ACLs can complement VRF security policy, but cannot replace VRF route isolation where overlapping destination prefixes must coexist with different forwarding decisions.

Question 190

A managed corporate WLAN uses individual employee identities checked through a backend authentication server. Which security model best matches this design?

  1. WPA2-Personal using one identical PSK on all clients
  2. WPA2-Enterprise using 802.1X and an authentication server
  3. An open WLAN with no link-layer authentication
  4. WPA with WEP static shared keys

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication with an EAP method and a backend authentication service, commonly RADIUS, to validate individual employee identities. This supports per-user access decisions, credential lifecycle and auditability rather than distributing a shared WLAN passphrase to every workstation. Correct certificate validation and secure EAP method selection are important for preventing rogue authentication-server attacks. The WLAN and clients must support compatible enterprise security settings to complete protected association.

Incorrect Answers

A:

WPA2-Personal normally uses a shared pre-shared key or passphrase for access to a WLAN. Although it encrypts traffic when properly configured, one common PSK does not independently authenticate each employee against a backend identity database. Revoking one user's access may require changing the shared credential for everyone, which is operationally awkward. The scenario specifically calls for distinct employee identities and central authentication, making an enterprise EAP/802.1X design more appropriate.

C:

An open WLAN can allow associations without link-layer user authentication, depending on access policy, and cannot satisfy the stated requirement to validate individual corporate employee accounts through a backend authentication service. A captive portal may add a separate application-layer step, but that is not equivalent to WPA2-Enterprise 802.1X integration. The requirement is for a managed corporate wireless security model, so choosing no link-layer authentication would weaken the expected assurance.

D:

WEP uses outdated encryption and weak keying mechanisms that are unsuitable for a modern managed corporate WLAN. Static shared keys also do not provide the required individual employee identity checks through a central authentication service. Its historical presence in legacy wireless standards is not a reason to deploy it when WPA2-Enterprise is available. Use enterprise 802.1X/EAP with modern supported ciphers and appropriate certificate-based trust instead.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests