Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 18
Question 170
A configured extended IPv4 ACL begins with permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any, followed by deny tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 23. What happens to a Telnet packet from 10.1.1.8?
- It matches the first permit and is not evaluated against the later deny
- It is denied because a deny statement always overrides a permit
- It is dropped only after reaching the implicit deny at the end
- It is transformed into SSH on TCP 22
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Cisco IOS ACL entries are normally processed in sequence, and the first matching ACE determines the permit or deny result. The opening permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any covers all IPv4 protocols from 10/8, including TCP Telnet from 10.1.1.8. Because that packet already matches the first permit, the later narrower deny is not evaluated. To block the intended traffic, put the specific deny before the broader permit.
Incorrect Answers
B:A deny ACE has no inherent global priority over a permit ACE earlier in the same sequential ACL. ACL evaluation stops at the first match, so a broad permit ip at the beginning can shadow a later deny tcp targeting a subset of that traffic. The administrator must order more specific exceptions before generic permits. Assuming all denies override permits would misunderstand rule-order semantics and could produce a misleading sense of security.
C:The implicit deny at the end of an ACL applies only if a packet reaches the end without matching an earlier ACE. Here the Telnet packet from 10.1.1.8 matches the very first permit, so it never encounters either the later explicit deny or the implicit deny. Implicit-deny behavior is important for unmatched traffic but cannot repair a shadowed rule. Inspect ACL counters and ordering to confirm which statement actually processes this flow.
D:An extended ACL decides whether matching packets are permitted or denied; it does not automatically rewrite the application protocol from Telnet on TCP port 23 to SSH on port 22. Security migration to SSH requires configuring the server and clients appropriately and potentially blocking Telnet with correctly ordered ACEs. The broad permit in this example even allows the stated Telnet flow. Rule evaluation controls acceptance, not transport conversion.
Question 171
A backup static route is configured with administrative distance 200 for the same prefix as an active OSPF route at distance 110. Which TWO observations are expected while the OSPF path is healthy? Choose TWO.
show running-config can still display the floating ip route commandshow ip route must always list both the OSPF route and the inactive backup as equally active next hops- The static backup must be removed automatically from the saved configuration
- The OSPF route is normally the installed entry for the prefix
- A default route replaces the entire OSPF prefix until the backup activates
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:A floating static route remains explicitly configured in the router's running configuration even when a better dynamic route is currently selected in the routing table. Its high distance of 200 makes it less preferred than the healthy OSPF route at 110, but does not erase the command. Engineers can inspect the backup definition with show running-config and should confirm the alternate next hop is reachable. Configuration presence and active forwarding installation are different facts.
D:For identical destination prefixes, a valid OSPF route at administrative distance 110 is more preferred than the floating static route at distance 200. The routing table therefore normally installs the OSPF next hop while the dynamic path is healthy, leaving the static as an available configured backup. If OSPF withdraws, the static can be installed if its own next hop still resolves. This is the intended primary/backup behavior.
Incorrect Answers
B:A healthy OSPF route with administrative distance 110 normally wins over a static backup at 200 for the identical destination prefix, so both are not installed as equal active forwarding next hops. Equal-cost multipath requires eligible alternatives with compatible selection properties, not two different administrative distances. The floating route can remain configured yet inactive in show ip route. The question distinguishes configuration storage from active route selection while the primary path works.
C:IOS does not automatically remove an ip route command from startup or running configuration merely because a dynamic route wins route selection. The backup must persist so that it can become eligible after OSPF loses the prefix. An administrator may deliberately remove a misconfigured route, but no such automatic deletion follows from its high administrative distance. The value 200 defines preference, not a configuration-expiration timer.
E:A default route matches 0.0.0.0/0 and acts as fallback for otherwise unmatched IPv4 destinations. It is not installed automatically to replace a specific OSPF prefix merely because a floating static backup exists. While the /16 or other target prefix is healthy through OSPF, longest-prefix matching uses that installed specific route. Route-source preference and prefix specificity are separate rules, and the scenario asks about the identical OSPF destination while operational.
Question 172
A team centrally administers network-device CLI access. It requires detailed command-by-command authorization of administrators on supported infrastructure. Which AAA protocol is traditionally associated with that granularity?
- DNS
- TACACS+
- TFTP
- DHCP
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:TACACS+ is commonly used for centralized authentication, authorization and accounting of network-device administrative access, including fine-grained per-command authorization on supported Cisco equipment. A policy server can decide whether a named administrator may execute particular privilege-level commands while maintaining audit records. Use encrypted, authenticated transport arrangements appropriate to the implementation and configure fallback access carefully. The system's advantage is detailed device-management policy, not simply verifying an IP address or leasing a client network configuration.
Incorrect Answers
A:DNS translates hostnames into resource records and helps an administrator locate a management server by name. It does not authenticate a network engineer or decide which privileged IOS commands that engineer may run. A DNS zone can resolve a TACACS+ host, but the command authorization occurs through an AAA service. The requirement for command-by-command policy granularity points away from a naming protocol toward a centralized device-access control system.
C:TFTP moves files over a simple transfer protocol and does not provide the per-user authorization framework needed to approve or reject individual router CLI commands. It may be used to copy configurations in a controlled lab, but it cannot centrally evaluate whether a particular engineer may issue configure terminal or another command. File transfer and AAA are separate control planes; the requested identity-aware command policy belongs to an AAA server protocol such as TACACS+.
D:DHCP assigns interface addressing parameters like IP addresses and gateways to clients. Even if a router administrator's workstation uses DHCP to reach the network, that service does not verify privileged usernames or authorize commands on Cisco devices. Centralized management access depends on AAA policies enforced by the router or switch and backed by a service. The function described is command authorization, not client address assignment or DHCP relay behavior.
Question 173
A company designs nonpublic local IPv6 addressing beginning with fd12:3456::. Which prefix family is it using?
- fc00::/7 denotes unique-local unicast address space
- fe80::/10, used exclusively for an address on a single link
- 2000::/3, used for globally routable address allocations
- fec0::/10, the obsolete IPv6 site-local category required for all new corporate networks
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:An IPv6 address beginning fd12: falls within the unique-local unicast allocation fc00::/7. Locally generated ULA addresses are intended for internal routing scopes and are not ordinarily advertised as globally allocated Internet destinations. Enterprise routers can still route these prefixes within authorized internal networks. The distinction from link-local is important: a ULA can traverse routed organizational links, whereas fe80 addresses stay on one link. The leading fd pattern identifies the intended family.
Incorrect Answers
B:The fe80::/10 range is for link-local IPv6 unicast and supports functions such as Neighbor Discovery on a single attached link. The proposed fd12:3456:: prefix is not in that numerical range and can be used in an internal routed addressing plan. Both are non-public in ordinary practice, but they differ in scope and forwarding behavior. Treating every non-global IPv6 address as link-local would lead to incorrect routing and interface design decisions.
C:The broad 2000::/3 family contains globally allocated IPv6 unicast address structures, subject to specific reservations. An address beginning fd lies outside 2000::/3 and is in the separate ULA allocation fc00::/7. An enterprise may use both address types, but a ULA prefix is not a public Internet allocation merely because routers can forward it internally. The scenario explicitly asks for nonpublic local addressing, matching the ULA family.
D:The old fec0::/10 site-local IPv6 address category was deprecated and should not be prescribed for new enterprise deployments as the normal local addressing choice. It is numerically distinct from the fd12 prefix provided. Current unique-local addressing uses fc00::/7, commonly with fd values under local generation rules. The option tries to substitute an obsolete class for the requested actual prefix. Use the stated address's bits rather than historical terminology.
Question 174
R1 and R2 have matching single-area OSPFv2 subnet, area and timers, but one side expects OSPF authentication while the other side does not. What is the likely effect?
- Authentication mismatch changes only interface bandwidth and cannot affect adjacency
- Routers will automatically negotiate any missing shared secret from the Hello packets
- The adjacency may fail until authentication settings match
- The mismatch can be repaired by changing the NAT pool alone
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:On a normal authenticated OSPFv2 adjacency, both peers need compatible authentication settings and matching credentials or keys appropriate to the configured method. If one side expects authentication and the other does not, OSPF Hellos can fail validation and the adjacency may remain down despite matching area, addressing and timers. Correct the mismatch on both interfaces and verify operational neighbor state afterward. Other prerequisites still apply, but the described auth difference is a sufficient blocker.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF authentication validates participating neighbors where configured, so differing authentication settings can prevent successful routing-protocol communication. It does not merely change the physical interface bandwidth or the computed cost of a link. Even if IPv4 addresses, area IDs and timers match, peers can reject protocol packets that fail authentication checks. The scenario makes that mismatch the remaining configuration difference; inspect OSPF authentication mode and credentials on the link.
B:OSPF authentication does not safely negotiate an unknown shared secret by exchanging it in cleartext Hello packets when one router lacks the configured method. Authentication configuration and applicable keys must be intentionally provisioned on both peers. Assuming automatic agreement would defeat the trust boundary and can leave routers stuck without adjacency. Verify the supported authentication type, key identifiers and matching credentials rather than hoping protocol discovery supplies secret material.
D:A NAT pool determines which addresses may be used for translation of selected traffic at a router boundary. It has no inherent authority over how neighboring OSPF routers authenticate Hello messages on an interior Ethernet link. Changing translated addresses would not make an unsigned or incorrectly authenticated OSPF packet acceptable. The relevant configuration is OSPF authentication on the participating interfaces and processes, not source address translation for unrelated flows.
Question 175
A model groups interface telemetry into clusters to highlight atypical devices, but no examples were previously labeled healthy versus faulty. Which learning category best fits?
- Supervised classification using known fault labels
- Unsupervised pattern grouping/anomaly discovery
- Manual IP route lookup
- An NTP clock association
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Unsupervised learning can group telemetry observations according to common patterns without needing examples pre-labeled as healthy or faulty. Clusters with unusual error rates, latency patterns or utilization may reveal outliers worth investigation. This is appropriate for the described unannotated interface data. An anomaly score is not itself proof of a device fault; engineers should correlate it with topology, maintenance windows and actual operational symptoms before applying remediation.
Incorrect Answers
A:Supervised classification trains a model on examples with known target labels, such as interfaces previously categorized as healthy or faulty. The question explicitly says no such labels were supplied, so this does not describe an ordinary supervised classifier trained to recognize a labeled fault state. An analyst might later label clusters to improve diagnosis, but that is a subsequent workflow. The immediate algorithm is discovering structure in unlabeled telemetry rather than learning a label mapping.
C:A manual IP route lookup examines a known destination address against installed forwarding prefixes and selects an eligible path. It does not form statistical clusters of interface metrics, nor does it learn unusual patterns from unlabeled time-series data. Routing lookup is deterministic network forwarding behavior, while the scenario concerns analytics on historical telemetry. Even if the anomalous device is a router, the learning method described is unsupervised grouping rather than destination forwarding.
D:NTP clock associations synchronize device clocks to time sources so metrics and logs can be correlated accurately. Reliable timestamps may be important input to telemetry analysis, but NTP itself does not classify or cluster devices by operational characteristics. The described model finds structure without healthy/faulty labels. Time synchronization supports the data pipeline, whereas unsupervised learning performs the actual pattern grouping and anomaly discovery.
Question 176
A network team needs to retrieve a router backup from an FTP server. Which TWO protocol facts are correct for ordinary FTP? Choose TWO.
- FTP is always encrypted automatically by its original specification
- FTP uses a TCP control connection, conventionally to port 21
- FTP uses UDP port 69 for all control and data packets
- Ordinary FTP can involve a distinct data connection in addition to its control channel
- FTP control messages identify the current OSPF designated router
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Ordinary FTP commonly establishes a TCP control connection to the server on destination port 21. That channel carries FTP commands and responses used to manage the file-transfer session. It is distinct from the possible data-transfer connection created for file contents or listings. Firewall rules and NAT behavior may need to account for both channels. Port 21 is associated with the FTP command service, not with NTP, SNMP or the router's routing-protocol state.
D:FTP traditionally separates the persistent control session from a data connection used for retrieving a file or directory listing. Passive and active modes differ in how those data connections are initiated and which endpoint listens, so security controls need to accommodate the chosen mode. This is a distinctive characteristic of original FTP. It also means simple firewall permission for TCP 21 alone may be insufficient to transfer the actual router backup successfully.
Incorrect Answers
A:Original FTP does not provide TLS encryption or strong confidentiality for its control and data channels by default. Credentials and transferred content can be exposed on untrusted paths unless a separate secure protocol variant or protection is used. That makes it unsuitable to assume automatic encryption for router configuration backups. For sensitive transfers, the team should evaluate a supported secure transport such as SFTP or properly configured FTPS instead of relying on bare FTP.
C:UDP port 69 is conventionally associated with TFTP, not ordinary FTP. FTP uses TCP for its control connection and generally sets up a separate TCP data channel as needed by the transfer mode. Confusing these protocols would cause both reachability and firewall-policy errors during a backup workflow. The user asks for facts about standard FTP from a server, so a TFTP UDP port cannot correctly describe all FTP control and data packets.
E:FTP control commands request file operations such as login, changing directories or retrieving data; they do not elect or identify an OSPF designated router. OSPF DR election is a separate network-routing function on certain broadcast segments. A router backup may contain OSPF configuration lines, but transferring that file through FTP does not make FTP a routing protocol. The option confuses application file transport with the topology state maintained by OSPF.
Question 177
A switch inspects ARP packets from untrusted access ports using previously learned IP-to-MAC bindings and drops forged mappings. Which feature is in use?
- BPDU guard
- LLDP receive
- Dynamic ARP Inspection
- NAT overload
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Dynamic ARP Inspection checks ARP packets arriving on configured untrusted interfaces against trusted binding information, commonly learned through DHCP snooping or defined ARP ACLs. Invalid claims about IP and MAC relationships can be dropped before reaching other hosts, reducing ARP spoofing and local man-in-the-middle risk. The VLAN and port trust configuration must be correct to avoid blocking legitimate static devices. The question's binding-based verification and forged mapping drops directly match DAI behavior.
Incorrect Answers
A:BPDU Guard protects appropriate spanning-tree edge ports by responding to unexpected BPDU receipt, often disabling an interface according to the platform policy. It does not inspect ARP sender-IP and sender-MAC fields against DHCP snooping bindings. The scenario describes forged address mappings arriving on untrusted ports, which is a local address-resolution attack rather than receipt of a switching-loop control frame. Use the feature designed for ARP validation.
B:LLDP receives and stores advertised neighbor metadata such as chassis ID, port identity and optional management address. It does not validate each host's ARP mapping against a binding table or drop forged ARP packets. A switch may run LLDP and ARP protection simultaneously, but the mechanisms examine different protocols. The statement about IP-to-MAC binding checks points to Dynamic ARP Inspection rather than the neighbor-discovery database.
D:NAT overload uses transport source ports to translate multiple inside flows through shared outside IPv4 addresses. That function occurs in a routing/NAT context and does not enforce ARP validity on Layer 2 access ports. A spoofed ARP message may poison nearby hosts before any routed flow reaches the NAT gateway. Because the switch is evaluating link-local ARP mappings against learned bindings, the feature is an ARP-specific inspection control, not address translation.
Question 178
A controller GUI offers WLAN QoS profiles. Voice handsets have a low-latency service requirement, while ordinary downloads should not be treated as voice. Which option is most appropriate when choosing a supported profile?
- Disable radio-rate adaptation for all client devices regardless of conditions
- Choose the controller’s supported voice-priority QoS profile for the handset WLAN
- Assign every WLAN to background/best-effort queues indiscriminately
- Use the WLC administrative login role as the QoS class for all frames
- Make all client IPv4 default gateways equal the management interface address
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A controller's supported voice-priority QoS profile is designed to treat appropriately classified handset traffic as latency-sensitive, subject to compatible WLAN, AP, wired and end-to-end network policies. Choosing it for the voice WLAN directly addresses the low-delay requirement without automatically giving background downloads the same class. Verify DSCP/802.11e mappings and platform-specific policy names. Priority handling still requires adequate capacity; a QoS label cannot eliminate congestion or repair poor RF coverage.
Incorrect Answers
A:Radio rate adaptation adjusts modulation and coding based on signal quality, interference and capabilities. Disabling it uniformly can degrade performance and does not establish preferential queueing for voice frames. The requirement concerns assigning an appropriate WLAN traffic priority to latency-sensitive handsets, while allowing ordinary downloads to remain at normal classes. An RF rate decision and QoS classification are separate controls; using one to replace the other would not meet the stated service differentiation.
C:Background and best-effort queues are appropriate for traffic that does not require special latency treatment, such as some bulk downloads. Assigning those classes indiscriminately to all WLANs would leave voice handsets competing with delay-tolerant traffic and could increase jitter under contention. The scenario explicitly distinguishes handset service from ordinary downloads. A suitable voice profile and consistent priority markings are more precise than flattening every traffic class into a lowest-priority treatment.
D:The WLC administrative login role controls what an authenticated management user may configure or inspect. It is not an IEEE 802.11 traffic category or QoS marking for frames from wireless clients. An administrator with elevated privileges does not cause all clients to receive voice queueing. The correct control is a WLAN traffic profile or policy associated with the desired application class, not the identity/authorization state of the person signed into the controller GUI.
E:IPv4 default gateways determine how clients send off-subnet packets and are normally associated with the appropriate client VLAN routing design. Setting every client gateway to the WLC management-interface address is not the way to prioritize voice frames and may break basic IP forwarding. Some controller architectures use different data paths and interfaces, but QoS policy remains a separate choice. Select a voice-appropriate WLAN profile while keeping valid per-VLAN addressing and gateways.
Question 179
A Linux laptop can resolve a local name but cannot reach its adjacent router. The engineer needs the learned Layer 2 neighbor mappings. Which command is helpful?
- ip neigh show
- ip link show
- ip route show
- ip neigh flush all
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:ip neigh show displays Linux neighbor-cache entries, including IPv4 ARP and IPv6 Neighbor Discovery mappings with link-layer addresses and reachability states. This is directly useful when a laptop can resolve a hostname but cannot communicate with its adjacent router, because it shows whether the gateway's IP address maps to an observed MAC. The engineer should compare the listed state and interface with the expected gateway and check Layer 2 connectivity if resolution is incomplete.
Incorrect Answers
B:ip link show lists Linux network interfaces and their link-layer or administrative state, including whether an interface is up. It helps determine whether the physical or virtual link is operational but does not give the learned IP-to-MAC neighbor mappings needed in the question. Both commands may be useful in a full diagnostic process; however, the stated evidence target is the neighbor cache, not only the NIC's status and flags.
C:ip route show reports installed IPv4 destination routes and associated outgoing interfaces or next hops. It can confirm which gateway the laptop intends to use, but not necessarily whether that next hop has been resolved to a link-layer address. The user asks specifically for learned Layer 2 neighbor mappings after name resolution succeeded. Inspecting the route is complementary; ip neigh show is the more direct command for actual neighbor-resolution state.
D:ip neigh flush all removes neighbor-cache entries, forcing subsequent traffic to rediscover link-layer mappings. That changes troubleshooting state rather than merely displaying the current evidence, potentially destroying information about failed or stale entries. Flushing can be a deliberate remediation step after inspection, but it is not the requested diagnostic display. Capture the existing neighbor state with ip neigh show first so the failure mechanism can be understood before altering it.
Question 180
A campus team assumes that configuring HSRP between two VLAN gateway routers also guarantees application uptime when the shared database server itself fails. Which explanation identifies the design limitation?
- HSRP can preserve a default-gateway endpoint but cannot replace application or server failover mechanisms
- HSRP replicates database disks across routers as part of its hello messages
- HSRP forces every client to send directly to the server without using routing
- HSRP is a Layer 1 optical redundancy technology that repairs fiber breaks automatically
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:HSRP supplies first-hop redundancy by allowing multiple routers to present a stable virtual default-gateway address and move the active forwarding role after a gateway failure. It cannot replicate application databases, restart a failed server or ensure service-level recovery when the destination itself is unavailable. A full availability design therefore needs separate server, storage and application failover mechanisms. The question identifies that gateway resilience and application resilience protect different failure domains.
Incorrect Answers
B:HSRP Hello messages coordinate router roles and failure detection in a virtual-gateway group. They do not carry database disk blocks or automatically synchronize the contents of a shared application server. Even if gateways remain healthy, a failed database backend would still interrupt dependent applications without their own resilience. Database replication or clustered service technology must be designed independently. Interpreting HSRP as a data-storage mirroring protocol confuses two unrelated high-availability layers.
C:End-user hosts generally continue sending off-subnet traffic to their configured default gateway, represented by the HSRP virtual IP. HSRP does not force every client to bypass routing and send directly to servers on other subnets. The gateway handles forwarding as normal, while the virtual identity enables router-role failover. Application availability still depends on whether the destination and services are reachable; changing the gateway mechanism cannot make a dead database respond.
D:HSRP operates as a Layer 3 first-hop redundancy arrangement with control messages and virtual IP/MAC behavior. It does not provide optical light, heal damaged fiber or directly replace physical transceiver redundancy. A router may lose an upstream fiber path and trigger failover when suitable tracking is configured, but that is a response to a link fault, not repair of the cable. The described server failure remains outside HSRP's responsibilities.