Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 16
Question 150
A technician assigns password <value> under line console 0, but the device still enters user EXEC without asking for it on console connection. Which missing command enables that line-password check?
login under line console 0ip routing in global configurationswitchport mode trunk on the uplinkntp master 5 in global configuration
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Under Cisco IOS line console 0, the password command sets a line credential, but the separate login command directs the console line to require that configured password. Without the relevant login method, the session may enter user EXEC without the expected prompt. Apply the line's authentication policy and verify it through a controlled reconnect. Prefer stronger named-account methods where supported and authorized, since legacy shared line passwords offer weaker attribution.
Incorrect Answers
B:ip routing governs Layer 3 forwarding on suitable IOS devices and has no bearing on console-line user authentication. The console interface is a local administrative path, often available even when routed network management is broken. Enabling IPv4 routing would not tell IOS to prompt for a password configured under line console 0. The missing step is an authentication directive within that line's configuration context.
C:switchport mode trunk changes an Ethernet port's Layer 2 forwarding role so it can carry multiple VLANs where supported. It does not configure or enforce login prompts on the dedicated console line. Even if the uplink were a trunk, the console could still bypass its optional password check without the line's login setting. The operator must correct the management authentication mechanism rather than the network port role.
D:ntp master 5 makes a router act as a local NTP clock reference at the specified stratum in supported configurations. It cannot require a technician at the physical console to supply a line password. Time synchronization can make login logs accurate, but it is independent of authentication policy. The console behavior stems from the missing login directive after setting the line password, not from a time-source command.
Question 151
An administrator enters ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2, but that network does not appear in show ip route while 10.0.0.2 is unreachable. What is the most likely explanation?
- The static command automatically creates an OSPF adjacency before entering the table
- The specified static next hop lacks a usable forwarding resolution path
- Static routes to /24 networks are unsupported on Cisco IOS
- The command is invalid because static routes cannot name a next-hop IP
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A static route that names a next-hop IP must have a usable resolution path to that next hop before IOS can normally install it for forwarding. If 10.0.0.2 is unreachable with no appropriate connected or recursive route, the specified route may remain in configuration but not appear as an active routing-table entry. Check the interface status, on-link subnet and recursive lookup for 10.0.0.2. The route syntax itself is valid; the failure concerns its usability.
Incorrect Answers
A:A static IPv4 route is manually configured and does not automatically form an OSPF adjacency in order to enter the local routing table. OSPF is a separate dynamic protocol with neighbor discovery and link-state route selection. The user entered a conventional static command whose next hop currently cannot be reached. Troubleshoot next-hop resolution rather than expecting a routing protocol to create an adjacency as a hidden prerequisite for this static entry.
C:Cisco IOS supports static routes to many prefix lengths, including ordinary /24 destination subnets, provided the mask is valid and next-hop or outgoing-interface resolution works. There is no general prohibition against manually routing 203.0.113.0/24. The destination and mask in the command form a straightforward /24 route. Since the scenario explicitly identifies an unreachable next hop, that forwarding dependency is a much stronger explanation than an imagined unsupported prefix length.
D:Cisco static routing syntax can specify a next-hop IPv4 address, an exit interface, or supported combinations depending on the network and platform. The example ip route ... 10.0.0.2 is a normal next-hop form. The problem is not that a next-hop operand is syntactically illegal, but that the router has no usable way to resolve it. Correcting reachability can make the route eligible without replacing the command format.
Question 152
Three physical routed links between the same devices are to become one Layer 3 LACP EtherChannel. Where should the shared IPv4 address for this aggregated logical link normally be configured?
- Assign the same IPv4 address to every physical member
- Configure the IPv4 address only on one physical member and leave the Port-channel unnumbered
- Configure the IPv4 address on interface Port-channel N
- Place the IP address on the VLAN database entry instead of any routed interface
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A routed EtherChannel presents multiple compatible LACP member links as one logical Layer 3 Port-channel interface. Configure the IPv4 address and mask on interface Port-channel N, where routing treats the aggregation as a single connected network attachment. Physical members join the channel and should not each receive that shared IP. Verify member bundling, LACP compatibility and operational status because a correctly numbered logical interface cannot compensate for a failed aggregation.
Incorrect Answers
A:All physical EtherChannel member interfaces should participate in one logical routed channel with consistent aggregation attributes. Assigning the same IPv4 address independently to every physical port would create overlapping or duplicate Layer 3 interface configuration and undermine the purpose of bundling them. The logical Port-channel interface is the routed endpoint. Configure member ports appropriately for the channel and assign the shared Layer 3 identity to the bundle, not repeatedly to its individual links.
B:Using only one member's IPv4 address would bind the Layer 3 identity to a physical link rather than the aggregated logical channel. A member could fail or be suspended while the Port-channel continues over the other links, so the IP configuration must represent the aggregate. An unnumbered Port-channel also would not meet a requirement for the explicitly shared local IPv4 address. Place the address on the Port-channel interface after creating the routed bundle.
D:A VLAN database entry describes a Layer 2 broadcast domain and its membership, not the IP address of a routed Port-channel. SVIs can supply gateways for VLANs, but the scenario explicitly calls for a Layer 3 aggregated physical link between devices. Its connected IPv4 network belongs on the routed logical Port-channel interface. Attempting to attach the address only to VLAN metadata would not establish the requested routed aggregate.
Question 153
A TCP receiver becomes temporarily overwhelmed and advertises a smaller receive window. What mechanism is being exercised?
- TCP congestion control is being configured by the receiving application to signal its network path capacity
- The TCP three-way handshake must restart whenever the advertised window becomes smaller
- TCP flow control uses the advertised receive window to limit outstanding bytes
- The IPv4 TTL is reduced to reflect the receiver’s remaining memory buffers
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:TCP flow control limits how many unacknowledged bytes a sender may have outstanding according to the receiver's advertised receive window. A smaller window means the receiver currently has less buffer capacity, so the sender should reduce the amount it sends without acknowledgment. This prevents overwhelming the peer independently of network congestion-control decisions. Both mechanisms may constrain sending, but the explicit receiver-origin signal in the question identifies flow control.
Incorrect Answers
A:TCP congestion control estimates or responds to bottlenecks in the network path using algorithms such as congestion-window adjustment. The receiver-advertised window instead reports how much incoming data the receiver can currently buffer. Conflating these two limits would misdiagnose a host capacity problem as network congestion. In this case the receiver explicitly sends a smaller advertised window because it is overwhelmed, making flow control the direct mechanism being exercised.
B:The TCP three-way handshake establishes a connection and initial sequencing state, but an established connection can change its advertised receive window throughout normal operation. A receiver may shrink or reopen available buffer space as the application consumes data. Restarting SYN negotiation is neither necessary nor the standard response to a smaller window announcement. The sender adjusts outstanding data in accordance with the flow-control information carried in subsequent TCP segments.
D:An IPv4 packet's time-to-live field limits routing hops before a packet expires; it does not encode TCP application-buffer availability. TTL is processed by routers along the path, whereas the TCP receive window is negotiated between transport endpoints. A busy receiver cannot ask the sender to slow down by reducing packet TTL. The scenario reports an advertised TCP header value, which governs flow control rather than a network-layer hop limit.
Question 154
An OSPFv2 router advertises a connected office subnet into area 0 but should not try to form OSPF adjacencies with user workstations on that LAN. Which configuration behavior achieves that?
- Make the user-facing interface passive within OSPF
- Delete the office subnet from all IP interface configurations
- Change the interface to OSPF point-to-point and enable a DR
- Force every workstation to run OSPF with router ID 0.0.0.0
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Setting the user-facing interface passive in OSPF suppresses ordinary OSPF Hello transmission and neighbor formation on that LAN while allowing the interface's connected network to remain advertised through the routing process where applicable. This is appropriate when the segment serves workstations rather than other OSPF routers. Verify the exact passive-interface scope and avoid accidentally applying it to transit links that need adjacency. The objective is advertisement without attempting to peer with end hosts.
Incorrect Answers
B:Removing the office subnet from interface IP configuration would eliminate the directly attached network and likely break local user connectivity. The requirement expressly says the subnet should still be advertised to other routers through OSPF. A passive-interface configuration preserves that route information while suppressing neighbor formation on the access LAN. Deleting local addressing would solve the wrong problem by removing service rather than preventing unnecessary routing Hellos to workstations.
C:OSPF point-to-point network type is intended for links with appropriate two-router behavior and avoids designated-router election on those links. The option's request to enable a DR while setting point-to-point is internally inconsistent, and it does not express the goal of withholding Hellos from workstations. The user LAN is not an OSPF neighbor transit network. Passive-interface is the direct setting to retain subnet advertisement without trying to form peers there.
D:Ordinary user workstations do not need to run OSPF to receive IP service from their default gateway. Forcing endpoints to participate in a routing protocol would increase complexity and risk, and reusing router ID 0.0.0.0 would not create valid neighbor identities. The requirement is about configuring the router's interface behavior, not changing every client's routing stack. Keep endpoints as hosts and use OSPF passive-interface on their access LAN.
Question 155
A network architect says the controller provides a logical view of the entire campus rather than seeing each node only in isolation. What benefit does that provide?
- It proves all uplinks are physically error free
- It removes every requirement to verify individual device outcomes
- It changes the meaning of IPv4 administrative distance
- Network-wide inventory, topology awareness and coordinated policy decisions
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A controller's logical view can combine device inventory, link relationships and operational state to support coherent network-wide policy decisions rather than isolated CLI edits. That aids troubleshooting and coordinated deployment because operators can see dependencies between access, distribution and core elements. The view is still based on collected data and must be validated against actual device behavior. Centralized awareness improves management consistency without eliminating distributed forwarding or local monitoring requirements.
Incorrect Answers
A:A controller's topology view aggregates information reported by devices; it does not physically guarantee that every link is healthy or has zero errors. Sensor data may be delayed or incomplete, and a green dashboard is not a substitute for appropriate interface diagnostics. The practical benefit is seeing how components relate and coordinating changes across them. Physical quality still requires monitoring of optical, copper and error counters and other evidence at the devices.
B:Centralized orchestration can make policy changes more consistent, but it cannot eliminate the need to verify outcomes on the managed switches and routers. A controller may issue an intent successfully while some devices fail to apply a command or retain stale forwarding state. Operators still need observability, rollback and per-device checks for critical changes. The question asks for an advantage of a logical network-wide view, not an exemption from normal engineering validation.
C:Administrative distance is a route-source preference mechanism that IOS uses when choosing among competing routes to the same prefix. Introducing a controller does not redefine that protocol-independent selection rule. A controller might automate installation of routes or policies, but their semantics remain those of the device and routing architecture. The desired benefit instead concerns visibility into topology and the ability to coordinate network policy across many nodes.
Question 156
A router sets DSCP EF on permitted voice packets as they enter the enterprise. Which QoS operation is performed at this step?
- Marking
- Congestion avoidance by dropping packets
- Link-layer trunk negotiation
- NAT port overloading
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:QoS marking classifies traffic and writes a traffic-class indicator such as DSCP in the IP header. Setting DSCP EF on selected voice packets is therefore the marking operation, which downstream devices can use to apply appropriate queueing or scheduling policy. Marking does not by itself guarantee priority on every hop; network devices must trust or interpret the field. The question asks for the action performed at ingress, not the entire end-to-end QoS treatment.
Incorrect Answers
B:Congestion avoidance can use methods such as active queue management to drop or mark packets before a queue overflows, influencing sending behavior. Setting a DSCP value on a packet is not a packet-drop decision and does not show that congestion exists. EF may later influence how a device prioritizes voice under load, but writing the class field is a separate operation. Here the router is identifying the packet class, which is marking.
C:Trunk negotiation concerns how Ethernet switchports agree to transport VLAN-tagged traffic using supported Layer 2 mechanisms. It does not write the IP header DSCP field for voice packets. A voice VLAN can be used as an input to traffic classification, but that is not equivalent to negotiating a trunk. The concrete action in the question is the deliberate assignment of an IP-level QoS marking, not link-mode selection.
D:NAT port overloading translates multiple internal flows through one or more outside addresses by distinguishing transport source ports. Its purpose is address/port translation, not marking the quality-of-service class of selected voice traffic. A network device might perform both NAT and QoS in a forwarding path, yet the operations are logically different. The presence of DSCP EF explicitly identifies a packet-class marking step rather than port translation.
Question 157
An SSH server presents a certificate-based identity and the client validates the signer and intended host. Which benefit is most relevant to the device identity check?
- Automatic assignment of the client address by DHCP
- Guaranteeing all administrative commands are authorized
- Eliminating the need for private-key protection
- Assurance that the management session is reaching an authenticated server identity
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:When the SSH client validates a server certificate's trusted signer and intended host identity, it gains assurance that it reached the expected management endpoint rather than a trivial impersonator. This reduces risks such as accepting an attacker's substituted host key during administrative login. Certificate trust must be configured correctly and private keys protected; validation does not itself authorize commands or prove the server is uncompromised. The result is authenticated server identity for the session.
Incorrect Answers
A:DHCP dynamically supplies interface addressing parameters such as IP address, subnet mask, gateway and resolver information. Validating a remote server certificate during an SSH management connection does not assign the client's network address. Both mechanisms may be involved in establishing connectivity, but they answer different questions. The scenario concerns confidence in the identity of the system accepting administrative credentials, not the method that configured the client's interface.
B:Server identity verification does not automatically authorize every administrative command a logged-in user might attempt. Authentication identifies the endpoint or account, while authorization defines permitted actions and roles. A valid host certificate can reduce impersonation risk but cannot replace role-based command restrictions or AAA policies. The question asks specifically for the benefit of verifying the remote server's identity, not a guarantee of administrator privileges after connection.
C:A certificate relies on secure possession of the associated private key; if that key is stolen, an attacker may impersonate the server despite a valid public certificate. Certificate validation therefore does not remove key-management responsibilities such as access control, rotation and revocation. The client should also validate the intended host and signer. The security benefit derives from binding an authenticated identity to a public key, not from making its secret key irrelevant.
Question 158
On a shared LAN segment, spanning tree selects the switchport that will forward frames from that segment along the best advertised path toward the root. What is that port role called?
- Alternate port
- Backup port
- Root port
- Designated port
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A designated port is selected for a spanning-tree LAN segment based on the superior BPDU information advertised toward the root and forwards frames for that segment under normal operation. The root bridge's ports are designated on attached segments, while non-root bridges also have a separate root-port role. The distinction is whether selection is for a segment or for a bridge's own path. The stated segment election matches a designated port.
Incorrect Answers
A:An alternate spanning-tree port provides a backup path toward the root bridge that is normally not forwarding user frames for the instance. It becomes relevant when the preferred root path fails or topology reconverges. The question instead describes the port chosen to forward for a shared LAN segment on the best advertised path. That function is the designated-port role, not a standby alternative to a root-port path on a bridge.
B:A backup port in spanning tree can provide an alternative path to the same shared segment when two ports of one bridge connect to it, depending on STP mode. It is not the ordinary elected forwarding port that represents the best path from an entire LAN segment toward the root. The role the stem describes is one per relevant segment under normal conditions. Backup is a nonforwarding protection role rather than the segment's designated path.
C:The root port is the port on a non-root bridge that offers that switch's best path toward the elected root bridge. It is chosen from the perspective of the non-root switch, not from all ports competing to forward for a particular shared segment. Although both root and designated ports may forward under normal topology conditions, they are determined by different comparisons. The stem explicitly asks for the segment-facing selected forwarder.
Question 159
A new Layer 3 SVI is intended to serve hosts in 10.40.18.128/26, but the engineer proposes assigning 10.40.18.128/26 to the SVI itself. Why is that address unsuitable as a conventional unicast interface address?
- All 6 host bits are zero, making .128 the /26 subnet network identifier
- The address is the /26 directed broadcast, which is .128
- Addresses in 10.0.0.0/8 cannot be assigned to internal router interfaces
- A VLAN SVI may use only link-local IPv6 addresses, never IPv4
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:With a /26 IPv4 mask, each subnet contains 64 addresses and boundaries occur at.0,.64,.128 and.192 in the last octet. The proposed.128 value is the first address of 10.40.18.128/26 and has all six host bits set to zero, so it identifies the network rather than a conventional unicast host. An operational SVI gateway should use an assignable value such as.129 through.190 instead.
Incorrect Answers
B:The directed broadcast of the /26 block beginning at.128 is the last value.191, where all six host bits are ones. Address.128 has host bits all zero and is the network identifier, not the broadcast. Both values are normally reserved for conventional IPv4 host allocation, but for different reasons. Labeling the wrong reserved endpoint would conceal the specific subnetting error the operator must correct.
C:RFC1918 reserves the 10.0.0.0/8 block for private enterprise addressing, and routers can validly use ordinary host addresses from that space on internal links. The defect is not that the address begins with 10; rather,.128/26 is the particular subnet's network identifier. A different 10.40.18.x address inside the usable.129–.190 interval would work as the SVI gateway when configuration and VLAN state are correct.
D:A switched virtual interface on a Layer 3-capable switch can carry IPv4 addressing and act as an inter-VLAN gateway when IP routing is enabled. IPv6 link-local addressing does not prohibit IPv4 configuration on the same logical interface. The specific proposal fails because it chooses a subnet network ID rather than a usable unicast IPv4 value. Changing the SVI's address to a valid host in the /26 is the relevant fix.
Question 160
A technician is auditing the operational state of an HSRP group on a Cisco IOS router. Which TWO verification statements correctly describe information exposed by the normal HSRP show commands? Choose TWO.
show standby brief can summarize local state, active and standby router identities, and the group virtual IPshow version proves that a device currently owns the HSRP virtual MAC solely from its license informationshow standby can report the configured HSRP virtual IP, hello and hold timers, and active/standby peer informationshow ip route alone always reports which neighboring router is the HSRP standby for each group- The HSRP virtual IP must be removed from both peers before
show standby can display group state - A switch MAC table listing the physical interface MAC of R1 alone proves R1 is HSRP active
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:show standby brief gives a compact Cisco HSRP group status view, including the local router's role and relevant active/standby peer identities or virtual gateway information on supported IOS releases. It is a useful first operational check to determine whether the device is active, standby or listening for a particular interface/group. The command observes protocol state rather than establishing it. If a value is missing, check the detailed group display and interface configuration.
C:show standby provides the detailed HSRP operational view and can display the group virtual IP, configured hello/hold intervals and active/standby information, depending on platform and HSRP version. Those values help diagnose role election, missed hellos and failover timing. It is a direct read-only verification method, not a replacement for checking actual forwarding and reachability. In combination with the brief summary it supports the stated operational audit.
Incorrect Answers
B:show version reports platform and software information such as IOS release, hardware and system uptime; its ordinary license fields do not establish which router currently owns an HSRP virtual MAC. HSRP active/standby ownership is dynamic and can change after link or device failure without changing the software image. The operator must inspect HSRP-specific state through show standby commands. A license summary is not an authoritative runtime gateway election report.
D:show ip route lists IPv4 destinations, route sources and selected next hops, but does not universally display the standby HSRP member for every group. An HSRP virtual gateway is a first-hop redundancy construct and may not be represented as a named backup identity in the routing table. A router could retain identical routes while HSRP ownership changes. Use HSRP-specific inspection to identify group roles rather than inferring them solely from route entries.
E:HSRP requires a configured virtual gateway identity for participating routers to advertise and manage the group; removing the virtual IP from both peers would undermine the intended service. show standby is designed to display current state while the virtual IP is configured, not only after it has been deleted. The proposed condition reverses the purpose of the command. Leave a working virtual gateway in place and inspect the group's current role and timers.
F:A conventional switch MAC table learns source MAC addresses on ingress interfaces and may list a physical router MAC as ordinary traffic is observed. That observation alone does not prove the same device currently owns the HSRP virtual gateway identity, which uses virtual MAC behavior tied to HSRP role and version. An active-to-standby transition may leave historical MAC-table entries temporarily. Verify the HSRP state using show standby rather than a single physical MAC entry.