cert
cert-1
cert-2

Pass Cisco 200-301 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed!

Get 100% Latest Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers to Pass the Actual Exam!
30 Days Free Updates, Instant Download!

cert-5
cert-6
200-301 Exam - Verified By Experts
200-301 Premium Bundle
$29.98

200-301 Premium Bundle

$79.99
$109.97
  • Premium File 760 Questions & Answers. Last update: Nov 10, 2026
  • Training Course 271 Video Lectures
  • Study Guide 1969 Pages
 
$109.97
$79.99
accept 327 downloads in last 7 days
block-screenshots
Purchase Cisco 200-301 Exam Training Products Individually
Cisco 200-301 Premium File
Premium File 760 Q&A
$76.99$69.99
Cisco 200-301 Video Training Course
Training Course 271 Lectures
$21.99 $19.99
Cisco 200-301 PDF Study Guide
Study Guide 1969 Pages
$21.99 $19.99
Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 15

Question 140

A Cisco design wants several gateway routers to share client first-hop forwarding load using one virtual gateway identity, not simply wait as a standby pair. Which Cisco FHRP is designed for this feature?

  1. HSRP with one active router per group and no multiple groups
  2. VRRP configured only with one master and one backup
  3. OSPF point-to-point routing on the router uplinks
  4. GLBP

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Gateway Load Balancing Protocol is a Cisco first-hop redundancy protocol designed to distribute client default-gateway forwarding among multiple routers while presenting a shared virtual IP. Its active virtual gateway role coordinates multiple active virtual forwarders, which can answer ARP using different virtual MAC addresses. This addresses load sharing rather than a single active/standby forwarding arrangement. GLBP availability depends on platform support and correct group configuration; it is not interchangeable with every HSRP or VRRP deployment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

HSRP normally elects one active virtual gateway per group, with a standby router ready to take over after failure. Multiple HSRP groups can be configured for distribution of clients among different active routers, but this option explicitly restricts the design to one group with one active router. It therefore does not provide active load sharing among several members of one virtual gateway identity. The requirement seeks a Cisco FHRP specifically built for gateway load balancing.

B:

VRRP is a standards-based first-hop redundancy mechanism that presents a virtual IP and ordinarily has one master forwarding with backup routers available for failover. That arrangement provides gateway availability, not the particular Cisco active load-sharing behavior described. Multiple groups or separate designs can distribute workloads, but the option says one master and one backup. The question asks for a mechanism designed to share first-hop forwarding load rather than merely choose a standby.

C:

OSPF point-to-point routing establishes a link-state routing relationship between routers and computes paths for advertised IP networks. End-user hosts normally do not participate in OSPF to select a virtual first-hop gateway. OSPF ECMP may balance routed traffic elsewhere in the network, but it does not automatically coordinate a shared virtual gateway identity or assign hosts to multiple active virtual forwarders. A specialized FHRP is needed for that function.

Question 141

A trunk already allows VLANs 10 and 20. An engineer must add VLAN 40 without unintentionally removing the current permitted VLANs. Which command should be applied to the trunk?

  1. switchport access vlan 40
  2. switchport trunk native vlan 40
  3. switchport trunk allowed vlan 40
  4. switchport trunk allowed vlan add 40

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 40 modifies the existing allowed-VLAN list by adding VLAN 40 instead of replacing the current entries. VLANs 10 and 20 therefore remain permitted, matching the operator's preservation requirement. Verify VLAN 40 exists where needed and that the far-end trunk is configured compatibly, because a local allowed-list addition cannot guarantee end-to-end delivery by itself. The key syntax distinction is the incremental add keyword.

Incorrect Answers

A:

switchport access vlan 40 assigns VLAN 40 for untagged frames when the interface is operating in access mode. The scenario involves an existing 802.1Q trunk with VLANs 10 and 20 already permitted, so this command does not extend its trunk allowed list. Access-port VLAN assignment and trunk permitted membership are independent settings. To add tagged VLAN 40 without disturbing the other permitted VLANs, modify the trunk list incrementally.

B:

switchport trunk native vlan 40 chooses how untagged frames are classified on an 802.1Q trunk, subject to platform behavior. It does not explicitly add VLAN 40 to the permitted data VLAN list, nor does it preserve a configured allowed set by itself. Changing the native VLAN also requires compatible peer settings to avoid mismatches. The operator's requirement is to add one permitted VLAN while leaving VLANs 10 and 20 intact.

C:

switchport trunk allowed vlan 40 replaces the trunk's current allowed-VLAN specification with VLAN 40 rather than incrementally adding it. That can silently remove VLANs 10 and 20 from forwarding across the link, disrupting existing traffic. The command may be useful when the administrator intentionally wants exactly one allowed VLAN, but not here. Use the add keyword to retain the old list while including the new entry.

Question 142

A routing table contains C 192.0.2.224/27 is directly connected, Gi0/2. Which address is inside that specific routed destination prefix?

  1. 192.0.2.223
  2. 192.0.3.1
  3. 192.0.2.192
  4. 192.0.2.241

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The connected route 192.0.2.224/27 spans decimal last-octet values.224 through.255, and.241 lies inside that interval. Ordinary forwarding can therefore use the associated connected interface Gi0/2 for that destination, subject to link and neighbor reachability. The route-table prefix matches all 32 addresses mathematically, even though a network ID or broadcast address would have different host-delivery semantics. Here.241 is also an ordinary usable host value.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A /27 prefix contains 32 IPv4 addresses and advances in blocks of 32 in the last octet. The network 192.0.2.224/27 covers.224 through.255, so.223 is the last address of the preceding.192/27 block. It is not inside the connected prefix shown on Gi0/2. A destination routing-table match is determined by the prefix range, not by the closeness of one decimal host number.

B:

Address 192.0.3.1 changes the third octet and lies beyond the entire 192.0.2.0/24 containing the connected route. The /27 entry cannot cover an address in 192.0.3.0/24. A router may have other routes to that address, but this particular Gi0/2 connected prefix is not one of them. The scenario tests the destination range defined by the installed mask, not whether some path exists elsewhere.

C:

The.192 value is the network identifier for 192.0.2.192/27, a distinct 32-address block immediately before 192.0.2.224/27. It cannot match the connected route beginning at.224. The numerical increment for /27 is 32, producing boundaries such as.192 and.224, rather than treating the entire final octet as one connected subnet. The question needs an address between.224 and.255.

Question 143

An office access switch must serve a desktop through a structured copper channel within the applicable Ethernet channel-length limit. Which cabling family fits?

  1. OM4 multimode fiber patch cords terminated in LC optical connectors
  2. A short passive twinax direct-attach cable substituted for the entire structured office run
  3. Balanced twisted-pair copper Ethernet cable meeting the link category requirement
  4. Single-mode OS2 fiber using long-reach optical transceivers at both endpoints

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Balanced twisted-pair copper Ethernet cable of a category appropriate for the desired speed and channel length is the conventional medium for an office desktop access port. Its pairs and terminations are designed to meet the relevant Ethernet physical-layer requirements within the specified structured cabling limit. Test continuity, pair order and cable quality where needed; correct media alone does not guarantee performance if the terminations are damaged or the channel is too long.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OM4 denotes graded multimode optical fiber, normally used with appropriate optical transceivers and connectors rather than a conventional copper desktop Ethernet jack. It may be suitable for short data-center fiber links, but the scenario explicitly describes a structured twisted-pair office access channel. Choosing optical fiber would require a different physical interface on both ends. The correct cable family must match the installed port type and Ethernet channel category requirements.

B:

A passive twinax direct-attach cable is generally used for short equipment-to-equipment connections using compatible high-speed transceiver-style ports. It does not replace an ordinary longer horizontal office cable route with standard copper Ethernet connectors and termination. Even if both media carry electrical signals, their connectors, reach limits and intended deployments differ. The technician needs a category-compliant structured copper channel from access switch to desktop, not a rack-level DAC jumper.

D:

Single-mode OS2 fiber and long-reach optics serve optical-link designs where endpoints have compatible fiber transceivers. The task instead assumes an ordinary copper desktop link within its supported structured channel length. Selecting long-reach optical modules would require equipment changes and is unnecessary for the copper interfaces described. Fiber can be useful for longer or interference-sensitive links, but the correct answer here follows the physical access-port and channel specifications rather than general fiber capability.

Question 144

Maintenance visitors occasionally enter a data center to inspect cable trays. Which TWO procedures support accountability without granting visitors unsupervised access? Choose TWO.

  1. Share one permanent employee badge among all external contractors
  2. Require identity verification and a time-limited visitor registration
  3. Disable visitor logs to reduce administrative work
  4. Require an authorized escort while visitors are inside restricted areas
  5. Leave the network room unlocked throughout the inspection day

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Identity verification and time-limited visitor registration create an auditable record of who entered the restricted facility, why they entered and when access should expire. This supports the stated accountability requirement while avoiding standing employee privileges. Access badges or sign-in records should be issued to the particular authorized visitor and reconciled on exit. Registration alone does not replace supervision, which is why the escort control is also necessary.

D:

A designated escort ensures maintenance visitors can inspect the approved cable trays without roaming unsupervised into unrelated network racks, consoles or sensitive equipment areas. The escort can reinforce approved work scope and site safety procedures, while the visitor log establishes identity and timing. This is a physical-access control, not merely a courtesy. The combination of verified registration and continuous authorized escort addresses both accountability and restricted movement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sharing a permanent employee badge among visitors removes individual attribution and can leave contractors with broad access after their work ends. An auditor could not reliably identify who entered a restricted area or when authorization was revoked. Visitor access should instead be uniquely registered, time bounded and supervised as required by site policy. A shared credential also increases loss and theft risk, making it unsuitable for an accountability-focused maintenance procedure.

C:

Visitor logs provide traceability for physical entry, allowing an investigator to connect security-camera events or equipment changes with authorized access windows. Disabling logs would remove that history and contradict the request for accountability. Logs should be protected against unauthorized alteration and retained under facility policy. Reducing administrative effort is not a security justification for eliminating records that show who entered a sensitive network environment.

E:

Leaving a network room unlocked grants physical access to anyone who passes the door, not just registered maintenance workers. It defeats the restricted-area boundary and offers no audit trail identifying each entrant. A facility should use controlled entry and visitor supervision even during an inspection window. Access convenience must be balanced against unauthorized connection changes, cable tampering and potential disruption of network equipment.

Question 145

A nightly script checks deployed configuration against an approved standard and alerts when someone changed a switch manually. What operational problem does this detect?

  1. Ethernet collisions caused by half-duplex links
  2. NTP stratum negotiation with a remote time server
  3. Configuration drift from the approved baseline
  4. The root bridge selection on an unrelated VLAN

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Configuration drift occurs when a device's actual running or deployed state diverges from an approved baseline, often after manual emergency changes or inconsistent maintenance. A nightly comparison can identify those differences and alert operators before they spread or violate policy. The standard should be version-controlled and authorized exceptions recorded so legitimate changes are distinguishable from errors. This process detects divergence; correction still requires review and a safe remediation procedure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ethernet collisions and late collisions relate to physical-layer and duplex behavior on appropriate legacy shared or mismatched links. A script comparing running configurations to a stored standard does not analyze collision counters or signal characteristics. A device might be fully compliant in configuration yet still suffer cable damage or negotiation faults. The operational problem specifically involves manual changes from an approved configuration, not evidence of Layer 1 traffic contention.

B:

NTP stratum describes distance from a reference clock in a time-synchronization hierarchy. A management tool could verify that an NTP server line matches a standard, but that does not make the overall comparison an NTP stratum negotiation mechanism. The script checks desired versus deployed network-device configuration. Its central finding is unauthorized or inconsistent setting changes, whereas NTP protocol behavior would be investigated using time-source status and association information.

D:

Spanning Tree Protocol selects root bridges and forwarding port roles for applicable Layer 2 instances. A configuration difference might incidentally affect STP settings, but the question describes a general script comparing device configuration with a baseline rather than calculating the root election on one VLAN. The relevant concept is drift detection, which can cover any configuration line. STP diagnostics would require reviewing bridge IDs, costs and operational BPDU state.

Question 146

Users in VLAN 30 have no local DHCP server. Their broadcasts must reach the central DHCP server 192.0.2.50 through the Layer 3 gateway on Vlan30. Where should ip helper-address 192.0.2.50 be configured?

  1. On the central DHCP server operating system only
  2. On every workstation network adapter
  3. On the Vlan30 Layer 3 interface that receives the DHCP broadcasts
  4. On the WAN interface pointing toward the DHCP server only

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

ip helper-address 192.0.2.50 belongs on the Layer 3 Vlan30 interface where client DHCP broadcasts arrive. The router can then relay the requests to the central server across the routed network and supply the client's gateway-related relay information. Confirm the helper address, DHCP scope, gateway address and return connectivity. A helper on an unrelated router interface will not process the local broadcasts from VLAN 30 unless that interface receives them.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A central DHCP server provides lease pools and options and can serve clients from multiple subnets, but it does not automatically hear Layer 2 broadcasts that never leave VLAN 30. The relay function must operate on the gateway interface receiving those client broadcasts. Configuring only the server's operating system would not cause the router to forward DISCOVER messages from an isolated subnet. Ensure the server has the appropriate scope and return routing after relay is enabled.

B:

Ordinary client workstations initiate DHCP broadcasts and do not need Cisco IOS ip helper-address configuration on their network adapters. That command is designed for routed interfaces acting as relay agents, which can convert relevant broadcasts into packets addressed to the remote server. Deploying configuration to every workstation would miss the infrastructure role and could complicate address management. The clients should continue using standard DHCP, with relay configured on their VLAN gateway.

D:

The WAN interface toward the DHCP server transmits routed packets, but it usually does not receive the clients' original local VLAN 30 DHCP broadcasts. A helper configured only there may never see those DISCOVER messages. Relay placement follows the incoming client broadcast domain rather than the outbound path to the server. Configure the Vlan30 SVI and verify the WAN route separately; the two functions are complementary but not interchangeable.

Question 147

R1 has a directly connected IPv4 10.80.12.0/24 network on GigabitEthernet0/1. The router receives a packet destined for 10.80.12.90 and selects that connected route, but the local ARP cache has no MAC entry for 10.80.12.90. What must R1 ordinarily do to deliver the packet over Ethernet?

  1. Resolve the destination host’s MAC address using ARP on GigabitEthernet0/1
  2. Send the packet through the IPv4 default route despite the connected /24 match
  3. Elect an OSPF designated router before forwarding to any directly connected host
  4. Change the packet destination IP address into the Ethernet broadcast address

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The router has selected an installed directly connected 10.80.12.0/24 route through Gi0/1, so the destination host is on the outgoing Ethernet segment. It must resolve 10.80.12.90 to a usable Layer 2 destination MAC using ARP if no suitable cache entry exists. After learning the address, it can encapsulate the IP packet in an Ethernet frame toward that host. ARP resolution is distinct from route selection, which has already completed.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A default route is used only when no more-specific installed route matches the IPv4 destination. Here 10.80.12.90 matches a connected /24 on Gi0/1, making the local interface the intended egress. Missing an ARP entry does not invalidate that network prefix or make the default path preferable. The router should resolve the neighbor on its connected link, not send the packet toward an unrelated upstream gateway.

C:

An OSPF designated router coordinates link-state database exchange on certain multiaccess routing segments; its election does not determine whether a directly connected host can receive an Ethernet frame. The connected route is already installed and the missing information is the host's link-layer address. A device may forward traffic on a local subnet without running OSPF at all. ARP is the relevant IPv4 next-hop resolution mechanism in this situation.

D:

An IPv4 destination address remains the logical destination during normal forwarding on the last hop. The router resolves that address to an Ethernet MAC and builds a new Layer 2 header, but it does not rewrite the destination IP into an Ethernet broadcast address. ARP requests are broadcast while the address is being resolved; the subsequent IP packet is normally carried as a unicast Ethernet frame. Confusing ARP discovery with packet destination rewriting would break IP delivery.

Question 148

A technician runs show lldp neighbors on a Cisco switch, but LLDP is administratively disabled for the entire device. Which global configuration command enables LLDP processing?

  1. lldp run
  2. cdp run
  3. ip routing
  4. switchport mode trunk

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

lldp run is the Cisco IOS global configuration command that enables Link Layer Discovery Protocol processing on supported devices. LLDP advertises and receives standardized neighbor information, allowing discovery across vendor boundaries when interfaces and peers are configured accordingly. After enabling the process, verify interface-specific LLDP transmit/receive settings and inspect neighbor output. No LLDP entry may appear if the remote device is silent or the link is not operational.

Incorrect Answers

B:

cdp run enables Cisco Discovery Protocol globally, which can advertise information about neighboring Cisco equipment but is not the same standards-based LLDP process. Enabling CDP will not cause the switch to parse incoming LLDP frames as LLDP neighbors. CDP may coexist with LLDP where supported, yet the scenario specifically states the LLDP service is disabled. The appropriate remedy must enable the corresponding protocol rather than a different discovery implementation.

C:

ip routing enables Layer 3 forwarding on capable switches and routers in appropriate IOS contexts. It has no direct role in whether the switch generates or receives LLDP advertisements on an interface. LLDP is a Layer 2 neighbor-discovery mechanism and can function on a device that is not performing IP routing. Activating routing to fix missing neighbor information would change the network's forwarding behavior without addressing the disabled LLDP process.

D:

switchport mode trunk configures a compatible switchport to carry VLAN-tagged traffic across a trunk. It does not globally start the LLDP protocol or override its disabled administrative state. LLDP can operate across suitable interfaces regardless of whether they are access or trunk ports, subject to platform configuration. The technician wants neighbor discovery, not a change from access to trunk mode. Altering link mode could disrupt connectivity without producing LLDP output.

Question 149

A fiber interface reports loss of signal immediately after an installer changes a patch lead. What is the first relevant test?

  1. Check optical continuity, patch polarity and compatible optics
  2. Check the management VLAN and add a default gateway before testing the fiber
  3. Configure both optical ports for half duplex to restore collision detection
  4. Increase the IP MTU until the local router interface stops reporting loss of signal

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Loss of received optical signal after changing a patch cable points to physical continuity, transmit/receive polarity, connector cleanliness or incompatible optical modules. Inspect that changed path first and verify supported optics, cable grade and visible transceiver diagnostics before investigating higher-layer protocols. Optical link establishment requires adequate receive light; a correct OSPF configuration cannot compensate for a missing physical signal. The scenario's timing makes the new fiber patch the highest-value initial check.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A management VLAN or default-gateway problem can block IP communication after an Ethernet link is established, but it does not usually cause a transceiver to report no received optical signal. Changing the gateway while the receive light is absent addresses the wrong protocol layer. Verify the optical path and interface link status first. Once the link is up, management addressing may become relevant if network reachability is still impaired.

C:

Half duplex was relevant to some older shared Ethernet media and mismatched copper connections, but it is not the repair mechanism for a modern fiber transceiver reporting loss of signal. Optical transmit and receive paths depend on compatible optics, intact fiber and correct polarity, not collision handling. Forcing duplex settings could introduce additional link problems without restoring light to the receiver. Test the physical connection changed during installation before altering Ethernet negotiation.

D:

IP MTU controls the largest packet size allowed at the network layer and is relevant to fragmentation or path-MTU problems after the interface is operational. It cannot make an optical receiver detect absent photons or repair an unplugged transmit strand. Raising MTU values on a down link will not change the optical alarm. The error arises at Layer 1 immediately after recabling, so diagnose continuity, polarity and optical compatibility instead.

Question 150

A technician assigns password <value> under line console 0, but the device still enters user EXEC without asking for it on console connection. Which missing command enables that line-password check?

  1. login under line console 0
  2. ip routing in global configuration
  3. switchport mode trunk on the uplink
  4. ntp master 5 in global configuration

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Under Cisco IOS line console 0, the password command sets a line credential, but the separate login command directs the console line to require that configured password. Without the relevant login method, the session may enter user EXEC without the expected prompt. Apply the line's authentication policy and verify it through a controlled reconnect. Prefer stronger named-account methods where supported and authorized, since legacy shared line passwords offer weaker attribution.

Incorrect Answers

B:

ip routing governs Layer 3 forwarding on suitable IOS devices and has no bearing on console-line user authentication. The console interface is a local administrative path, often available even when routed network management is broken. Enabling IPv4 routing would not tell IOS to prompt for a password configured under line console 0. The missing step is an authentication directive within that line's configuration context.

C:

switchport mode trunk changes an Ethernet port's Layer 2 forwarding role so it can carry multiple VLANs where supported. It does not configure or enforce login prompts on the dedicated console line. Even if the uplink were a trunk, the console could still bypass its optional password check without the line's login setting. The operator must correct the management authentication mechanism rather than the network port role.

D:

ntp master 5 makes a router act as a local NTP clock reference at the specified stratum in supported configurations. It cannot require a technician at the physical console to supply a line password. Time synchronization can make login logs accurate, but it is independent of authentication policy. The console behavior stems from the missing login directive after setting the line password, not from a time-source command.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests