Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 14
Question 130
In a controller GUI, an administrator selects WPA2-Personal/PSK for a staff SSID. Which TWO security settings need to be consistent between the configured WLAN and the authorized client? Choose TWO.
- The chosen WPA2-Personal key-management/security mode
- An identical OSPF router ID on the AP and laptop
- The correct pre-shared passphrase configured for that WLAN
- A matching syslog severity threshold on the client
- A native VLAN of exactly 1 on every AP Ethernet port
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:The client and WLAN must agree on the WPA2-Personal authentication and key-management security mode to negotiate the intended protected association. Choosing a different security profile, such as open access or an enterprise EAP configuration, changes the handshake expectations and can prevent joining. The SSID name alone is not proof of matching security. Both ends need compatible cipher and personal-mode settings as part of a successful WPA2 connection.
C:WPA2-Personal derives shared authentication and encryption key material from the correctly configured passphrase and SSID context. A client with a different personal key cannot complete a valid protected association even if it sees the WLAN and chooses WPA2. The authorized workstation must therefore use the passphrase provisioned for this staff SSID. Maintain appropriate secret handling and consider stronger WPA3 mechanisms where all devices support them.
Incorrect Answers
B:An OSPF router ID identifies a routing-protocol participant and is relevant to router neighbor relationships, not station authentication to a Wi-Fi access point. A laptop joining WPA2-Personal does not need to run OSPF or copy a router identifier from the AP. The security negotiation is performed through the wireless client and WLAN configuration. Matching an OSPF router ID would neither establish the correct passphrase nor provide the required key-management mode.
D:Syslog severity thresholds specify which diagnostic events are sent or stored, with more severe messages assigned lower numerical levels. They do not participate in the 802.11 WPA2 personal authentication handshake between a client and access point. Different syslog settings can affect troubleshooting visibility, but not whether a station's shared secret matches the configured WLAN. The required matching settings concern security mode and passphrase, not device logging policy.
E:An AP uplink's native VLAN influences handling of untagged Ethernet frames in a trunked wired design; it is not universally required to be VLAN 1 for a WPA2-Personal WLAN. Many secure designs deliberately use other management and native VLAN choices. The user's station authentication depends on its wireless security profile and shared credential. Forcing VLAN 1 on every AP switchport could create unrelated segmentation problems without fixing a mismatched passphrase.
Question 131
OSPF provides a healthy IPv4 route for 10.70.0.0/16 at administrative distance 110. A backup static for the same prefix must remain unused while OSPF is present. Which IOS command configures a floating static at distance 220?
ip route 10.70.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.0.2.9ip route 10.70.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.9 220ip route 10.70.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.0.2.9 90ip route 10.70.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.0.2.9 220
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The IOS command specifies the same 10.70.0.0/16 destination as OSPF and sets an administrative distance of 220 for the static next hop 192.0.2.9. Because OSPF's 110 is lower, the dynamic route remains preferred while valid; the static can become eligible after OSPF withdraws or loses reachability. Confirm next-hop resolution and failure behavior, since a syntactically valid floating route is useful only when the alternate path works.
Incorrect Answers
A:The command defines a static route to the correct /16 through the named next hop, but without an administrative-distance argument it uses the normal static distance of 1. That static route would normally beat an OSPF route with distance 110 for the same destination, becoming primary rather than floating backup. A backup must have a less-preferred distance that exceeds the dynamic route's distance. The user specifically supplies 220 for that role.
B:The trailing administrative distance 220 is appropriate for a floating static, but the destination mask 255.255.255.0 defines a /24 rather than the required 10.70.0.0/16 prefix. It would cover only the narrower subnet and would not be a direct backup of the OSPF route for the whole /16. Correct backup behavior requires matching the destination prefix as well as choosing the higher distance.
C:An administrative distance of 90 is lower than OSPF's 110, so the manually configured static route would be preferred whenever its next hop resolves. That contradicts the requirement to leave OSPF active as primary. Although the destination and /16 mask are correct, the numeric preference is reversed. A floating route should be installed only after the better dynamic path is lost, so choose a value greater than 110.
Question 132
A controller WLAN for employees must place successfully joined clients into VLAN 55 rather than the guest VLAN 77. Which GUI mapping most directly determines their wired VLAN assignment in the controller’s supported policy model?
- Select the client VLAN/interface mapping for VLAN 55 in the WLAN/policy settings
- Rename the employee SSID to the string VLAN55 only
- Change the administrator web console from HTTPS to HTTP
- Set the WLC console cable to full duplex
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:On a supported Cisco controller policy model, the WLAN's client traffic is mapped to a data interface or VLAN through WLAN and policy-profile settings. Choosing VLAN 55 for the employee policy determines the wired forwarding segment for successfully associated staff devices. The SSID controls wireless service identification, but does not alone encode a VLAN number. Verify the relevant policy-profile, AP/site assignment and wired switching configuration for the controller platform in use.
Incorrect Answers
B:Renaming an SSID to a string containing a VLAN number changes the broadcast network name clients see, but does not automatically configure the controller's Ethernet VLAN assignment. A name such as VLAN55 is merely text unless the policy mapping is independently configured. Employees could associate under the new name and still be placed in guest VLAN 77. Set the actual interface or policy VLAN mapping instead of relying on naming conventions.
C:HTTPS protects the controller's browser-based management traffic using TLS, whereas HTTP alone would expose sensitive administrative content over an unencrypted transport. Switching the web console to HTTP has no logical relationship to the VLAN that carries joined employee client data. It would also weaken management security. The requested correction belongs to the WLAN's client-data mapping policy, not to the protocol used by an administrator's browser.
D:A console cable provides local administrative access and its serial connection parameters are separate from Ethernet duplex settings on data-facing switchports. Changing an imagined console full-duplex setting cannot place wireless clients into VLAN 55. The employee traffic VLAN is selected through controller policy and wired trunk or interface configuration. Diagnose that mapping while preserving secure and functional management access to the controller.
Question 133
A branch switch is required to provide default gateways for several VLANs without attaching a separate external router. Which capability achieves this?
- Configure 802.1Q trunks only and expect them to automatically create routed VLAN gateways
- Use an unmanaged Layer 2 switch to join all VLANs while preserving separate IP gateway subnets
- Configure the same IPv4 gateway address on every Layer 2 access port without enabling IP routing
- A multilayer switch routes traffic using switched virtual interfaces
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A multilayer switch supports switched virtual interfaces with IP addresses for each VLAN and can route traffic between those connected subnet gateways. This provides inter-VLAN forwarding on the same chassis instead of requiring an external router-on-a-stick deployment. The administrator must create the VLANs, enable the SVIs and IP routing, and ensure trunk/access membership is correct. Merely creating SVIs on an otherwise Layer 2-only platform would not satisfy the requirement.
Incorrect Answers
A:802.1Q trunks carry traffic for multiple VLANs between compatible Ethernet devices, but trunk tagging does not create IP gateway addresses or activate Layer 3 forwarding. The branch requirement is to route packets between distinct VLAN subnets on the existing switch hardware. A trunk can be part of the design but cannot independently perform the gateway function. Assign routed SVIs and enable the necessary IP routing on an appropriate multilayer switch instead.
B:An unmanaged Layer 2 switch normally forwards Ethernet frames and does not expose routed VLAN interfaces or a configurable Layer 3 gateway for multiple subnets. Physically connecting VLAN segments without routing can also defeat intended broadcast-domain separation. The owner wants several independent subnet gateways while avoiding a separate router. That requires a routing-capable switch, not an unmanaged bridge that has no mechanism for selecting IP next hops.
C:Configuring the same IPv4 address on ordinary Layer 2 access ports does not turn them into gateway interfaces, and duplicate addresses can create conflicts or undefined delivery. Access ports belong to Layer 2 VLANs, while routed SVIs supply the logical Layer 3 termination for each VLAN. Without enabling routing, the switch cannot forward packets between the VLANs. The required solution assigns suitable distinct gateway prefixes to operational SVIs instead.
Question 134
On the same OSPFv2 broadcast subnet, R1 advertises Hello 10 seconds and Dead 40 seconds, while R2 advertises Hello 5 and Dead 20. Which correction best addresses the adjacency failure?
- Set all network hostnames to R1
- Change the default route on both routers to the same next hop
- Enable PortFast on both routed Ethernet interfaces
- Configure compatible Hello and Dead intervals on the two interfaces
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:OSPFv2 Hello and Dead interval settings must match between neighbors on a normal shared broadcast network for adjacency to form. R1's 10/40 seconds and R2's 5/20 seconds disagree, so correct one or both to a compatible pair and confirm that the interfaces use the same area and suitable network type. Then inspect show ip ospf neighbor for progress toward Full state. Matching timers do not replace the other adjacency prerequisites.
Incorrect Answers
A:Router hostnames assist operator identification but are not OSPF Hello or Dead interval negotiation parameters. Two routers may form a healthy adjacency while retaining separate names and router IDs; using one common hostname would not repair the timers. The stem identifies explicit 10/40 versus 5/20 second values on the same broadcast subnet. Correct the OSPF interface timing configuration, because the mismatched values can prevent the Hello exchange from passing compatibility checks.
B:An IPv4 default route is consulted for destinations without better prefix matches. OSPF neighbor discovery and adjacency formation on an Ethernet segment depend on local protocol parameters such as area and Hello/Dead timers, not on both routers sharing an identical default next hop. Changing default routes could even disrupt unrelated upstream traffic. The stated problem occurs before learned routes can be exchanged and should be fixed at the OSPF interface configuration.
C:PortFast is a Layer 2 spanning-tree edge feature for appropriate access ports. It does not change OSPF Hello or Dead intervals on a Layer 3 transit adjacency and cannot make mismatched protocol timers compatible. Enabling edge behavior on an inappropriate inter-switch link could create additional risk. Since the OSPF routers already share the transit subnet and agree on other relevant settings, align their protocol timers and verify neighbor states directly.
Question 135
A parsed JSON value is {"interfaces":[{"name":"Gi0/1","up":true},{"name":"Gi0/2","up":false}]}. How should software access the second interface name?
- Take the first element of the top-level object without looking at its key
- Read
interfaces[2].name under zero-based indexing - Read the
name field of the element at index 1 in the interfaces array - Interpret the entire JSON text as one unstructured string
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:First select the interfaces property, which contains an array, then take element index 1 and read its name field. Because arrays are zero-indexed, index 1 refers to the second object, whose name is Gi0/2. This structure-aware access is appropriate for automation that consumes controller inventory. In a real script, validate the array length and property existence before dereferencing to avoid errors on incomplete responses.
Incorrect Answers
A:JSON objects are mappings from named keys to values, so array access begins only after selecting the interfaces property from the top-level object. Treating the first arbitrary object value as the interface entry could be brittle or wrong if the schema contains additional fields. The required name belongs to the second element of the nested array. Use the documented key and zero-based array index rather than positional assumptions about object properties.
B:With zero-based indexing, an array holding two items has valid indices 0 and 1. Accessing interfaces[2] would request a third element that is absent from the supplied JSON, producing an out-of-range or undefined result depending on the language. The second object has name equal to Gi0/2 at index 1. The index must match the array structure rather than the human ordinal number of the device.
D:JSON carries structured objects, arrays, strings and primitive values rather than being inherently an undifferentiated text blob. A parser converts the document into a structure where the program can use property names and array indexes safely. Treating the entire payload as a string and performing blind text searching could confuse fields or break when formatting changes. The goal is to retrieve a specific nested element, which requires parsing the interfaces array.
Question 136
A monitoring collector records syslog levels 0 through 4, and filters out levels 5 through 7. Which TWO message categories should still be retained by this numerical filter? Choose TWO.
- Informational (6)
- Critical (2)
- Debugging (7)
- Notifications (5)
- Warnings (4)
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Critical syslog events carry numerical severity 2, making them eligible under a collector that retains levels 0 through 4. Cisco syslog numbers decrease as conventional urgency increases, so severity 2 is considered more urgent than warnings or informational records. The message category must be preserved by the stated range filter. The exact facility may differ by device, but the numerical severity mapping is the relevant fact here.
E:Warning messages are assigned syslog severity number 4, the highest numerical level still accepted by the collector's inclusive 0-through-4 rule. They remain alongside emergency, alert, critical and error categories. The filter is not a separate assessment of each warning's content; it keeps the class because 4 lies inside the specified range. Together with critical severity 2, warnings supply the two correct categories in the choices.
Incorrect Answers
A:Syslog informational messages have severity number 6. The stated filter saves only numerical levels 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4, so informational events are outside the accepted range. These messages may be useful during normal troubleshooting, but the collector is intentionally configured to drop less-severe levels 5 through 7. The decision is mathematical severity filtering, not whether an operator personally considers an informational record helpful.
C:Debugging messages use syslog severity 7, the least urgent category in the common 0-through-7 classification. A filter that discards levels 5, 6 and 7 therefore drops debugging messages rather than retaining them. Debug output is sometimes valuable when diagnosing a narrow issue, but it may be noisy and is outside this collector's configured acceptance range. The choice fails solely because its numeric severity is excluded.
D:Notifications or notice-level events use syslog severity 5, directly above the maximum saved severity 4. Even though notifications can be operationally relevant, the collector's stated rule drops every record numbered 5 through 7. It therefore cannot be one of the retained categories. The question does not ask for the categories an engineer would ideally log, only for those that pass the configured numeric filter.
Question 137
A team cannot patch a vulnerable management interface immediately. Which TWO changes most directly reduce access to the exposed interface while the patch is scheduled? Choose TWO.
- Allow management access only from an approved administrative subnet
- Enable that management protocol on every WAN interface
- Disable router configuration backups
- Set the switch NTP source to a public time server
- Filter unsolicited access to the management port at network boundaries
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Restricting management-plane access to an approved administrative source subnet reduces the number of systems that can reach the vulnerable service while a patch is prepared. Apply a suitable infrastructure ACL, management-plane filter or interface access policy based on the platform. This is containment rather than remediation: an authorized host inside that range could still exploit the flaw. Monitor access attempts and proceed with the supported patch as soon as practical.
E:Filtering unsolicited access to the affected management port at relevant network boundaries prevents traffic from unapproved zones from reaching the vulnerable service. This provides a second containment layer in addition to restricting administrative source subnets. Rules should be as narrow as possible and tested so legitimate emergency management remains available. Boundary filtering cannot cure the software defect itself, but it measurably reduces exposure while a vendor fix is scheduled.
Incorrect Answers
B:Enabling a vulnerable management protocol on every WAN interface would enlarge the attack surface, exposing more network entry points to potentially untrusted systems. That is the opposite of the temporary containment objective. Even strong account credentials may not protect against every protocol implementation flaw. The safer interim policy is to limit where the service listens and which approved management hosts can reach it, while retaining necessary recovery access.
C:Configuration backups support recovery when a patch or network maintenance change fails. Disabling them does not stop an attacker from reaching a vulnerable listening management process and makes restoration harder if an incident occurs. Backup protection, access restrictions and patching serve different purposes. The present question asks how to reduce exposure to the unpatched interface; preserving secure backups is prudent, but removing them provides no such network control.
D:Changing NTP to a public server may improve time accuracy or alter exposure to a time service, but it does not restrict access to the vulnerable management interface. An NTP peer is unrelated to which administrator source networks can open SSH, HTTP or another affected management port. Incident logs benefit from accurate timestamps, yet that does not close the exploitable listener. The relevant compensating controls limit inbound reachability until the patch is applied.
Question 138
A technician wants to confirm whether Gi1/0/12 appears as an access member of VLAN 32 on a Cisco switch. Which command presents VLAN membership and associated access ports?
- show ip route
- show spanning-tree root
- show vlan brief
- show interfaces trunk
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:show vlan brief lists VLAN identifiers and names alongside ordinary access ports assigned to them on a Catalyst switch. The technician can inspect VLAN 32 and check whether Gi1/0/12 appears in its access membership. For trunk ports or unusual platform modes, follow up with switchport details because they may not appear in the same summary column. For this explicit access-port check, the VLAN brief display directly answers the requirement.
Incorrect Answers
A:show ip route provides Layer 3 reachability entries on routing-capable devices, including connected and learned prefixes. It does not list which physical switch ports are configured as access members of a particular Layer 2 VLAN. A VLAN can carry user frames without each switchport appearing as a routed interface. To verify Gi1/0/12's VLAN association, inspect the VLAN database and access-port membership instead of the IP forwarding table.
B:show spanning-tree root describes root-bridge information and path costs for VLAN spanning-tree instances, helping validate loop-free topologies. It does not serve as the primary inventory of access ports assigned to VLAN 32. STP may include participating interfaces but their port roles are different from VLAN configuration membership. The request asks whether the named port appears under the VLAN, so use the switch's VLAN summary command.
D:show interfaces trunk lists interfaces operating as VLAN trunks and shows permitted or active VLAN sets on those trunks. A normal access port assigned to only VLAN 32 is not a trunk and need not be shown there. This output is appropriate when verifying inter-switch tagged VLAN transport, not routine access-member inventory. The technician specifically asks about one switchport's access VLAN, making show vlan brief the targeted first command.
Question 139
A data center experiences heavy east-west server traffic and must support predictable equal-cost paths between racks. Which physical architecture is typically chosen?
- A leaf-spine fabric connects each leaf to the spine layer
- Daisy-chain the rack access switches through neighboring racks to form one long Layer 2 path
- Use a classic campus access–distribution–core hierarchy without an east–west fabric design
- Connect all racks to one aggregation switch that provides no alternate upper-tier links
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A leaf-spine topology connects every leaf switch to a spine layer, yielding a predictable short route between hosts attached to different leaves. With appropriate Layer 3 fabric routing, multiple spine paths can support equal-cost multipath for east-west server traffic and redundancy. The exact bandwidth depends on link capacity and oversubscription, but the regular topology fits the stated data-center goal. It avoids long cascades and a single upper-tier aggregation bottleneck.
Incorrect Answers
B:Daisy-chaining rack switches forces traffic between distant racks through an increasing number of intermediate access switches. Those variable path lengths create uneven latency, complicated failure effects and potential hot spots instead of multiple predictable equal-cost paths. A simple chain may suit a tiny isolated test, but it does not satisfy the data center's scalable east-west traffic requirement. A leaf-spine fabric supplies consistent transit choices through its spine layer.
C:A classic campus access-distribution-core hierarchy separates user edge, policy aggregation and backbone transport functions. It can carry server traffic but is not the specific regular rack-to-rack fabric architecture described by the requirements. East-west traffic often benefits from symmetric paths and multipath across spine switches. A traditional hierarchy without an explicit east-west ECMP design may introduce additional tiers and bottlenecks compared with a data-center leaf-spine topology.
D:Placing all racks behind one aggregation switch creates a concentration point for inter-rack throughput and a single failure dependency unless additional redundancy is designed. The scenario explicitly requires predictable equal-cost alternative paths, which a solitary upper-tier switch cannot provide. The aggregation design may be adequate for a very small environment with modest demands, but it does not meet the stated scalable data-center requirement. Multiple spines are the relevant feature.
Question 140
A Cisco design wants several gateway routers to share client first-hop forwarding load using one virtual gateway identity, not simply wait as a standby pair. Which Cisco FHRP is designed for this feature?
- HSRP with one active router per group and no multiple groups
- VRRP configured only with one master and one backup
- OSPF point-to-point routing on the router uplinks
- GLBP
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Gateway Load Balancing Protocol is a Cisco first-hop redundancy protocol designed to distribute client default-gateway forwarding among multiple routers while presenting a shared virtual IP. Its active virtual gateway role coordinates multiple active virtual forwarders, which can answer ARP using different virtual MAC addresses. This addresses load sharing rather than a single active/standby forwarding arrangement. GLBP availability depends on platform support and correct group configuration; it is not interchangeable with every HSRP or VRRP deployment.
Incorrect Answers
A:HSRP normally elects one active virtual gateway per group, with a standby router ready to take over after failure. Multiple HSRP groups can be configured for distribution of clients among different active routers, but this option explicitly restricts the design to one group with one active router. It therefore does not provide active load sharing among several members of one virtual gateway identity. The requirement seeks a Cisco FHRP specifically built for gateway load balancing.
B:VRRP is a standards-based first-hop redundancy mechanism that presents a virtual IP and ordinarily has one master forwarding with backup routers available for failover. That arrangement provides gateway availability, not the particular Cisco active load-sharing behavior described. Multiple groups or separate designs can distribute workloads, but the option says one master and one backup. The question asks for a mechanism designed to share first-hop forwarding load rather than merely choose a standby.
C:OSPF point-to-point routing establishes a link-state routing relationship between routers and computes paths for advertised IP networks. End-user hosts normally do not participate in OSPF to select a virtual first-hop gateway. OSPF ECMP may balance routed traffic elsewhere in the network, but it does not automatically coordinate a shared virtual gateway identity or assign hosts to multiple active virtual forwarders. A specialized FHRP is needed for that function.