cert
cert-1
cert-2

Pass Microsoft SC-900 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed!

Get 100% Latest Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers to Pass the Actual Exam!
30 Days Free Updates, Instant Download!

cert-5
cert-6
SC-900 Exam - Verified By Experts
SC-900 Premium Bundle
$29.98

SC-900 Premium Bundle

$79.99
$109.97
  • Premium File 259 Questions & Answers. Last update: Nov 10, 2026
  • Training Course 147 Video Lectures
  • Study Guide 413 Pages
 
$109.97
$79.99
accept 69 downloads in last 7 days
block-screenshots
Purchase Microsoft SC-900 Exam Training Products Individually
Microsoft SC-900 Premium File
Premium File 259 Q&A
$76.99$69.99
Microsoft SC-900 Video Training Course
Training Course 147 Lectures
$21.99 $19.99
Microsoft SC-900 PDF Study Guide
Study Guide 413 Pages
$21.99 $19.99
Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 88

Question 870

A SOC wants an alert when multiple unusual sign-ins occur followed by privileged activity. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections.
  2. Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope.
  3. Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue.
  4. Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.

B:

Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.

C:

Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.

Question 871

A nonprofit wants to distinguish sign-ins from approved office egress IP addresses during policy rollout. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity.
  2. Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need.
  3. Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins.
  4. Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation.
  5. Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity. This is the directly applicable response. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

D:

Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need. This item belongs to a different control area: Privileged Identity Management eligible roles. Its appropriate purpose is: PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

C:

Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

E:

Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results. This item belongs to a different control area: Access reviews. Its appropriate purpose is: Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

Question 872

A credential leak prompts a review of potentially compromised cloud users and automated response options. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
  2. Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution.
  3. Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.
  4. A noncompliant device is blocked or challenged while compliant devices can access the targeted app.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

C:

Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

D:

A noncompliant device is blocked or challenged while compliant devices can access the targeted app. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access compliant devices. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Question 873

A municipal IT group cannot retire legacy on-premises directories but must provision users to cloud services. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history.
  2. Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration.
  3. Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities.
  4. Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

B:

Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

D:

Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

Question 874

A government office needs evidence that official records cannot be casually deleted before required disposition. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements.
  2. Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history.
  3. A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview Audit to search supported Microsoft 365 audit events for accountability and investigations.
  5. Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements. This is the directly applicable response. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

B:

Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

Incorrect Answers

C:

A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

D:

Use Microsoft Purview Audit to search supported Microsoft 365 audit events for accountability and investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

E:

Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

Question 875

A service currently embeds a database connection secret in its source repository. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged.
  2. Related endpoint, identity and email signals appear together in a coordinated investigation.
  3. Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources.
  4. The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Related endpoint, identity and email signals appear together in a coordinated investigation. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

C:

Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

D:

The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Question 876

A firm wants to block access from explicitly disallowed geographic regions without giving blanket privilege to office networks. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications.
  2. Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity.
  3. Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users.
  4. Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity. This is the directly applicable response. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

C:

Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

D:

Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

Question 877

An automation app calls an Azure resource API and credential rotation causes frequent outages. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods.
  2. Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.
  3. Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins.
  4. Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This is the directly applicable response. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods. This item belongs to a different control area: Multifactor authentication. Its appropriate purpose is: MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

C:

Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

D:

Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

Question 878

An IT team plans a new Conditional Access control and wants to avoid locking out emergency administrators. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
  2. Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced.
  3. A managed tenant identity can sign in to integrated cloud resources under assigned access policies.
  4. The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

C:

A managed tenant identity can sign in to integrated cloud resources under assigned access policies. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

D:

The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

Question 879

A finance employee receives a phishing email containing a credential-stealing website link. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud.
  2. Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
  3. Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections.
  4. Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.

B:

Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.

D:

Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.

Question 880

A VM-hosted service needs access to a storage account without any password committed to its repository. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.
  2. Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
  3. Use Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management to require time-limited activation of eligible privileged roles.
  4. A noncompliant device is blocked or challenged while compliant devices can access the targeted app.
  5. Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This is the directly applicable response. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

E:

Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

C:

Use Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management to require time-limited activation of eligible privileged roles. This item belongs to a different control area: Privileged Identity Management eligible roles. Its appropriate purpose is: PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

D:

A noncompliant device is blocked or challenged while compliant devices can access the targeted app. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access compliant devices. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests