Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 87
Question 860
A supplier must collaborate on a project using its home organization credentials without becoming a full internal employee. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account.
- Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced.
- The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results.
- Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
Incorrect Answers
B:Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
C:The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
D:Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
Question 861
An attacker appears to be moving laterally through on-premises Active Directory credentials. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments.
- Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations.
- Store and access application secrets in Azure Key Vault with appropriately controlled authorization.
- Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments. This is the directly applicable response. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.
Incorrect Answers
B:Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.
C:Store and access application secrets in Azure Key Vault with appropriately controlled authorization. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.
D:Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.
Question 862
A hub-and-spoke Azure design needs centrally governed outbound and east-west traffic filtering. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths.
- Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
- Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
- Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
C:Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
D:Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
Question 863
A legal records team wants controlled lifecycle management for declared business records. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
- The record follows the required preservation and disposition process with auditable controls.
- The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls.
- A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The record follows the required preservation and disposition process with auditable controls. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.
Incorrect Answers
A:Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.
C:The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.
D:A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.
Question 864
A developer wants to confirm that a downloaded installation package matches the publisher's trusted digest. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application.
- Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
- Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.
- Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This is the directly applicable response. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
Incorrect Answers
A:Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
C:Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
D:Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
Question 865
A web API faces malicious requests aimed at application vulnerabilities rather than network saturation. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
- Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.
- Related endpoint, identity and email signals appear together in a coordinated investigation.
- Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.
- Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This is the directly applicable response. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
D:Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
C:Related endpoint, identity and email signals appear together in a coordinated investigation. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
E:Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
Question 866
A small charity adopts a cloud SaaS offering and assumes it no longer needs to manage user access or its own data. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.
- Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments.
- Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
- Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.
Incorrect Answers
A:Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.
C:Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.
D:Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.
Question 867
A platform team has hundreds of cloud assets and wants to identify risky public exposure and missing safeguards. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.
- Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations.
- Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
- Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
C:Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
D:Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
Question 868
A support team wants to administer private VMs without opening inbound port 3389 from the Internet. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management to discover, prioritize and track exposed device software weaknesses.
- Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis.
- Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data.
- Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly. This is the directly applicable response. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management to discover, prioritize and track exposed device software weaknesses. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender Vulnerability Management. Its appropriate purpose is: Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.
B:Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.
C:Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.
Question 869
A regulated buyer needs provider assurance reports to supplement its own control evidence. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
- Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
- Use supported Microsoft Purview sensitive information types or classifiers to identify defined sensitive data patterns.
- Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation. This is the directly applicable response. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
B:Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
C:Use supported Microsoft Purview sensitive information types or classifiers to identify defined sensitive data patterns. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitive information type classification. Its appropriate purpose is: Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
Question 870
A SOC wants an alert when multiple unusual sign-ins occur followed by privileged activity. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections.
- Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope.
- Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue.
- Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
Incorrect Answers
A:Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
B:Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
C:Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.