Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 85
Question 840
A company wants strong authentication tied to managed Windows laptops rather than shared department passwords. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Deploy Windows Hello for Business for strong device-associated user authentication on supported Windows endpoints.
- Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors.
- Use Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management to require time-limited activation of eligible privileged roles.
- Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method.
- The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Deploy Windows Hello for Business for strong device-associated user authentication on supported Windows endpoints. This is the directly applicable response. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
D:Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
C:Use Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management to require time-limited activation of eligible privileged roles. This item belongs to a different control area: Privileged Identity Management eligible roles. Its appropriate purpose is: PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
E:The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
Question 841
A legal group asks whether transparency and user control are reflected in the chosen cloud solution. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls.
- The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record.
- The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when.
- The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
Incorrect Answers
B:The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
C:The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
D:The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
Question 842
A healthcare tenant wants to assign owners for privacy assessment control improvements. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles.
- Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
- Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data.
- Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This is the directly applicable response. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles. This item belongs to a different control area: Content explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
C:Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
D:Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
Question 843
A procurement team suspects employees are uploading files to unsanctioned SaaS storage platforms. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization.
- Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data.
- Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization. This is the directly applicable response. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.
Incorrect Answers
A:Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.
C:Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.
D:Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.
Question 844
A third-party automation platform needs authorized API access to a tenant without impersonating a shared employee account. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators.
- Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
- Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
- Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
B:Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
D:Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
Question 845
A university has dozens of cloud apps and wants centrally managed student sign-ins instead of local passwords in each app. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.
- Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach.
- Design several complementary security layers across identity, network, application and data boundaries.
- Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This is the directly applicable response. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
Incorrect Answers
B:Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
C:Design several complementary security layers across identity, network, application and data boundaries. This item belongs to a different control area: Defense in depth. Its appropriate purpose is: Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
D:Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
Question 846
A compliance team wants privacy-conscious investigation of repeated risky data transfer patterns by authorized employees. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls.
- Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
- A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition.
- Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
Incorrect Answers
A:A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
B:Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
D:Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
Question 847
An auditor wants a current view of cloud security posture and open hardening recommendations. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud.
- Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations.
- Simulated or observed attack conditions show mitigation telemetry while legitimate traffic remains reachable.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.
D:Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations. This is the directly applicable response. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Bastion. Its appropriate purpose is: Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.
C:Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Endpoint attack surface reduction. Its appropriate purpose is: ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.
E:Simulated or observed attack conditions show mitigation telemetry while legitimate traffic remains reachable. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.
Question 848
A threat report shows users opening suspicious links despite initial message delivery. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations.
- Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios.
- Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.
- Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios. This is the directly applicable response. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
C:Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
D:Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
Question 849
An IT team plans a new Conditional Access control and wants to avoid locking out emergency administrators. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement.
- Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.
- Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported.
- Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement. This is the directly applicable response. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.
Incorrect Answers
B:Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.
C:Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.
D:Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.
Question 850
A firm wants to stop Office applications from launching unexpected child processes on staff devices. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The targeted risky process behavior is blocked without unnecessarily disrupting approved workloads.
- Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections.
- An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition.
- A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The targeted risky process behavior is blocked without unnecessarily disrupting approved workloads. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
Incorrect Answers
B:Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
C:An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
D:A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.