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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 90

Question 890

An operations group must keep emergency access distinct from ordinary just-in-time privileged activity. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
  2. Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs.
  3. Inspect PIM eligible and active assignments, activation policies and role activation logs.
  4. Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect PIM eligible and active assignments, activation policies and role activation logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

B:

Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Multifactor authentication. Its appropriate purpose is: MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

D:

Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

Question 891

A VM-hosted service needs access to a storage account without any password committed to its repository. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. A noncompliant device is blocked or challenged while compliant devices can access the targeted app.
  2. The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code.
  3. The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
  4. Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A noncompliant device is blocked or challenged while compliant devices can access the targeted app. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access compliant devices. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

C:

The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

D:

Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need. This item belongs to a different control area: Privileged Identity Management eligible roles. Its appropriate purpose is: PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

Question 892

A help desk report confuses passing multifactor sign-in with having administrator rights in a tenant. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments.
  2. Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers.
  3. Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.
  4. Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

B:

Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers. This item belongs to a different control area: Defense in depth. Its appropriate purpose is: Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

D:

Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

Question 893

A company wants an MFA requirement for a high-risk billing app but not for every internal service. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account.
  2. Stale access is removed or explicitly reaffirmed according to the completed review decisions.
  3. Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.
  4. The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

B:

Stale access is removed or explicitly reaffirmed according to the completed review decisions. This item belongs to a different control area: Access reviews. Its appropriate purpose is: Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

C:

Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Conditional Access application targeting is the closer match. A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate.

Question 894

A factory retains Windows domain controllers while introducing Microsoft 365 for its staff. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
  2. Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need.
  3. The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions.
  4. Approved requesters receive the packaged resources temporarily and their access expires as designed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need. This item belongs to a different control area: Privileged Identity Management eligible roles. Its appropriate purpose is: PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

C:

The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

D:

Approved requesters receive the packaged resources temporarily and their access expires as designed. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

Question 895

An administrator seeks a controlled way to connect to management endpoints inside a VNet. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
  2. Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events.
  3. Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths.
  4. Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

B:

Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

D:

Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Question 896

An auditor asks who owns application configuration, customer information and physical server security in an IaaS deployment. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
  2. Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
  3. Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments.
  4. Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

B:

Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

D:

Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Question 897

A payroll app should open only on organization-compliant endpoints even if a password is correct. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details.
  2. Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
  3. Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities.
  4. Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

C:

Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

D:

Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

Question 898

A security manager wants to trace cloud technical findings into a compliance framework dashboard. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
  2. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization.
  3. Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
  4. Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections.
  5. Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

E:

Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This is the directly applicable response. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

B:

Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps discovery. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

D:

Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Question 899

A procurement reviewer requests Microsoft's available independent audit documents for a cloud service. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities.
  2. Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview retention policies to manage preservation or deletion of supported content at selected locations.
  4. Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation. This is the directly applicable response. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.

C:

Use Microsoft Purview retention policies to manage preservation or deletion of supported content at selected locations. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.

D:

Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.

Question 900

A domain controller shows suspicious enumeration and authentication activity during an investigation. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Simulated or observed attack conditions show mitigation telemetry while legitimate traffic remains reachable.
  2. Traffic paths honor the intended segment boundaries and only deliberately connected networks can communicate.
  3. Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections.
  4. Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Simulated or observed attack conditions show mitigation telemetry while legitimate traffic remains reachable. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.

B:

Traffic paths honor the intended segment boundaries and only deliberately connected networks can communicate. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure virtual network segmentation. Its appropriate purpose is: Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.

C:

Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests