Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 80
Question 790
An internal investigation must find relevant communication records while avoiding accidental alteration. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
- Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes.
- Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps.
- Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
B:Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
C:Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Question 791
An analyst has centralized logs but no automated detection for repeated malicious network behavior. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.
- Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.
- Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths.
- Inspect VNet and subnet address plans, peering relationships and route tables.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
C:Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
D:Inspect VNet and subnet address plans, peering relationships and route tables. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure virtual network segmentation. Its appropriate purpose is: Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
Question 792
A contractor can successfully sign in but must not edit finance data outside the assigned role. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
- Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.
- A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication.
- Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records.
- Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.
E:Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This is the directly applicable response. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.
C:A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.
D:Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.
Question 793
An organization wants structured tracking of actions required by a compliance standard. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status.
- Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
- Inspect retention policy scope, duration settings and resulting content lifecycle behavior.
- Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
C:Inspect retention policy scope, duration settings and resulting content lifecycle behavior. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
D:Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down. This item belongs to a different control area: Content explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
Question 794
A regulator requests defensible content search and collection from an approved matter. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Create and publish Microsoft Purview sensitivity labels that classify and protect content according to policy.
- Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.
- Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
- Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This is the directly applicable response. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Incorrect Answers
A:Create and publish Microsoft Purview sensitivity labels that classify and protect content according to policy. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitivity labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
B:Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
C:Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Question 795
A phishing email leads to a risky sign-in and suspicious endpoint behavior that analysts currently investigate separately. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations.
- Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products.
- Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
- Inspect cross-product incidents, linked alerts, entity timeline and incident evidence in the Defender portal.
Explanation
Correct Answers
C:Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products. This is the directly applicable response. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
E:Inspect cross-product incidents, linked alerts, entity timeline and incident evidence in the Defender portal. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
Incorrect Answers
A:Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
B:Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
D:Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
Question 796
A municipal IT group cannot retire legacy on-premises directories but must provision users to cloud services. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.
- Approved requesters receive the packaged resources temporarily and their access expires as designed.
- On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
- Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.
Incorrect Answers
A:Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.
B:Approved requesters receive the packaged resources temporarily and their access expires as designed. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.
D:Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.
Question 797
A compliance team wants to know when users changed sensitivity labels on documents. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
- Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service.
- Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps.
- Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
- Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This is the directly applicable response. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
C:Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
D:Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
E:Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
Question 798
An administrator wants to replace network-location trust with identity-based gates for a SaaS portal. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier.
- Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests.
- Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
- Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Incorrect Answers
A:Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
B:Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
D:Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Question 799
A regional workforce connects to cloud applications from home networks and unmanaged locations. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.
- Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach.
- Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence.
- Design several complementary security layers across identity, network, application and data boundaries.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This is the directly applicable response. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Incorrect Answers
B:Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
C:Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
D:Design several complementary security layers across identity, network, application and data boundaries. This item belongs to a different control area: Defense in depth. Its appropriate purpose is: Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Question 800
A security team wants consistent logging and managed policy for traffic leaving multiple VNets. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads.
- Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured.
- Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints.
- The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards.
- Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads. This is the directly applicable response. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
E:Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
Incorrect Answers
B:Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
C:Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints. This item belongs to a different control area: Endpoint attack surface reduction. Its appropriate purpose is: ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
D:The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.