Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 82
Question 810
A software team moves its application to Azure virtual machines and assumes Microsoft now patches the guest operating systems. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
- Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.
- Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments.
- Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.
Incorrect Answers
A:Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.
B:Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.
D:Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.
Question 811
A startup standardizes Microsoft 365 and Azure sign-ins and needs centrally managed tenant identities. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation.
- Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task.
- The engineer can perform the allowed resource action but cannot manage unrelated resources or tenant identity settings.
- Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events.
- Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications.
Explanation
Correct Answers
D:Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.
E:Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications. This is the directly applicable response. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.
B:Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.
C:The engineer can perform the allowed resource action but cannot manage unrelated resources or tenant identity settings. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.
Question 812
An endpoint hardening project aims to reduce script-based abuse without relying solely on antivirus signatures. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The targeted risky process behavior is blocked without unnecessarily disrupting approved workloads.
- An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition.
- A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard.
- The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The targeted risky process behavior is blocked without unnecessarily disrupting approved workloads. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
Incorrect Answers
B:An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
C:A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
D:The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
Question 813
A legal office has repeated reverse-proxy phishing attempts against password-based logins. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods.
- Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.
- Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement.
- Use Microsoft Entra entitlement management access packages with governed request, approval and expiration rules.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods. This is the directly applicable response. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
Incorrect Answers
B:Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
C:Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
D:Use Microsoft Entra entitlement management access packages with governed request, approval and expiration rules. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
Question 814
An audit group mistakes a high compliance score for proof that every legal obligation is satisfied. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when.
- The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls.
- Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
- Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
Incorrect Answers
A:The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
B:The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
D:Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
Question 815
A governance analyst needs classification-oriented item-level visibility before creating remediation plans. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features.
- Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.
- Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down.
- Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.
B:Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.
D:Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.
Question 816
An organization wants a common preservation period for selected Microsoft 365 locations. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards.
- Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data.
- Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation.
- Use Microsoft Purview retention policies to manage preservation or deletion of supported content at selected locations.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Use Microsoft Purview retention policies to manage preservation or deletion of supported content at selected locations. This is the directly applicable response. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
B:Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
C:Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
Question 817
A database VM should accept TCP traffic from an app subnet but reject general Internet connections. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint endpoint detection and response capabilities to investigate malicious device activity.
- Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations.
- Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis.
- Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope. This is the directly applicable response. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint endpoint detection and response capabilities to investigate malicious device activity. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Endpoint EDR. Its appropriate purpose is: Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
B:Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
C:Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
Question 818
A company notices that recently hired on-premises users are absent from its Microsoft 365 tenant. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors.
- Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events.
- Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs.
- Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
C:Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
D:Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
Question 819
A company wants controlled access and audit events for sensitive application credentials. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines.
- Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence.
- Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.
- Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.
B:Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.
C:Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.
Question 820
A new remote-work policy demands an additional sign-in proof beyond one memorized password. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods.
- The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code.
- Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications.
- Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs.
- Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods. This is the directly applicable response. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.
D:Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.
Incorrect Answers
B:The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.
C:Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.
E:Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.