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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 79

Question 780

A startup standardizes Microsoft 365 and Azure sign-ins and needs centrally managed tenant identities. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task.
  2. Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications.
  3. Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity.
  4. Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications. This is the directly applicable response. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

C:

Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

D:

Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

Question 781

A security center receives several alerts tied to the same compromised account and needs one investigative view. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios.
  2. Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
  3. Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products.
  4. Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This is the directly applicable response. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

B:

Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

C:

Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

Question 782

A support team wants to administer private VMs without opening inbound port 3389 from the Internet. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status.
  2. Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.
  3. Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis.
  4. Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly.
  5. Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly. This is the directly applicable response. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

E:

Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender Vulnerability Management. Its appropriate purpose is: Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

B:

Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

C:

Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Question 783

A security team wants to search telemetry from several Microsoft services and network controls in one platform. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard.
  2. Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections.
  3. Expected source events are searchable in the intended workspace and support threat analytics.
  4. Affected endpoints generate actionable detections and responders can investigate the activity chain.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Expected source events are searchable in the intended workspace and support threat analytics. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

B:

Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

D:

Affected endpoints generate actionable detections and responders can investigate the activity chain. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Endpoint EDR. Its appropriate purpose is: Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

Question 784

A consulting firm needs six external auditors to review a SharePoint workspace for a limited engagement. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions.
  2. Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration.
  3. Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
  4. Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

C:

Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

D:

Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method. This item belongs to a different control area: Windows Hello for Business. Its appropriate purpose is: Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

Question 785

A software team moves its application to Azure virtual machines and assumes Microsoft now patches the guest operating systems. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.
  2. Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control.
  3. Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application.
  4. Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control. This is the directly applicable response. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

C:

Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

D:

Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Question 786

A cloud team needs a consolidated view of misconfigured resources across subscriptions. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports.
  2. Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud.
  3. Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events.
  4. Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

C:

Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

D:

Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

Question 787

A credential leak prompts a review of potentially compromised cloud users and automated response options. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs.
  2. Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details.
  3. Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history.
  4. Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

B:

Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access compliant devices. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

D:

Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Question 788

A company sees malicious URLs in collaboration messages and needs click-time protection where supported. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture.
  2. Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening.
  3. Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios.
  4. Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios. This is the directly applicable response. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.

B:

Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.

D:

Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.

Question 789

An analytics team transfers sensitive reports and archives them for later use and needs protection in both locations. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.
  2. Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
  3. Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
  4. Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

B:

Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

C:

Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

Question 790

An internal investigation must find relevant communication records while avoiding accidental alteration. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
  2. Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes.
  3. Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps.
  4. Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

B:

Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

C:

Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests